Very very unfortunate example. Are you claiming, like early PIE lobbyists of the 19th century, that "Spanish" and "French" have evolved from within "Latin"? There is no single "Spanish" or "French" before the last couple of centuries. Neither was there a single "Latin" from which the so-called Romance languages apparently descended. This parentage concept you are using is not supported by current accumulated evidence.ManishH wrote:Different development in different children of a parent language is nothing extra-ordinary. See:brihaspati wrote: Why did Latin keep the hypothesized "labiovelar", and Greek lost the "velar" onlee? Why Sanskrit lost the labial?
Latin aqua > French eau, but Spanish agua
Latin pluvia > French pluie, but Spanish lluvia
Latin nubes > French nuage, but Spanish nube
Nope - for the first. Your unfortunate example above would be a prime candidate to deny "whims". Do clarify what you mean by "environment". A lot depends on your definition.Humans are conditioned by their a) whims and b) environment.so unpredictably and wildly differing in their sound changes?
What is your proof that techniques of sound retention were developed onlee after RgVeda? Are you saying that the rates and magnitudes of corruption in the RgVeda is higher than evidenced in Sanskrit and successor languages?The techniques to retain sounds with low corruption were developed only after RgVeda. Actually, even in RgVeda, metrical evidence shows us that there were distortions - it's unequalled, but not a perfect system.Why would Sanskrit with such strong tradition of strict intergenerational maintenance of oral rendition accuracy of pronunciation suddenly start this practice after coming to India to maintain this strangely altered corruption of its ancestral usage?
You need three extra rules : it happens in X ways for Greek, Y ways for Latin, and Z ways for Sanskrit.
As long as they have a semblance of regularity, this is nothing extra-ordinary. See development of words that Spanish and French loaned from Latin.
Again, I am not sure you are aware of the trajectories of development of "Spanish" and "French" from "Latin". In fact there are great controversies about origins of the classical form of Latin itself, and in what practical form it was actually used. The so-called semblance of regularity - is a phonetic proximity argument with added claims of proximity of ancient usage. You are in the habit of denying the phonetic proximity argument unless it is supported by linguistically reconstructed or assumed ancient similarity of usage.
To explain the differences you need as many rules as the number of differences.
Nope, only as many rules as branches and known phonetic affect of vowels on adjacent consonants.
Nope. Since you are adding on "known phonetic affect of vowels on adjacent consonants" - it now gets multiplied by the number of branches into branch-specific "known" [ that is in non-PIE lobby-speak, reconstructed/estimated/guessed based on other reconstructions/estimations/guesses based on other reconstructions/estimations/guesses cyclically ad nauseam].
ManishH ji, indulge me - think again. You start with a supposed PIE word. Two branches of this PIE speaking culture moves physically away from each other, carries their PIE word for some generations and then phonetically drift. You claim to "know" how "phonetic affect of vowels on adjacent consonants" proceeds.
If this "phonetic affect" is identical for the same linguistic group - it must have remained the same in both branches for some time, because for a time after separation, they still retain the same rules of "phonetic affect". You also claim that humans do not drastically change their sound positions. Then any initial incremental changes have to be small, and the same "phonetic affect" rule guiding both branches can onlee allow changes in identical directions.
This can be bypassed, under dropping of the slow/reluctant/small incremental phonetic changes assumption, or assuming that within the same society - different "phonetic affect rules" co-exist with equal long term survival chance [pretty strong assumption if the society is supposedly close knit, tightly linked, tribal or pastoral group].
Or you have to assume a rule existing in the proto-language itself that guides how even "phonetic affect rule" will change according to cumulative changes in a dispersed branch. Strangely, PIE lobby doesn't propose or show the existence of such rules for "rules".
But to justify your claim, you need to assume for your given example - three different rules for three different branches which cannot be traced to a common ancestral rule of "phonetic affect". This makes it arbitrary and not parsimonious.
As for inscriptional "proof" of labiovelars - labiovelars are an assumed phonetic category, dependent crucially on how they are supposedly pronounced. Inscriptions on the other hand provide symbols that supposedly represent sounds. It takes some leap of imagination and faith to claim inscriptions as proofs of labiovelars.
There is wide agreement that the Mycenaean Greek symbol in question was a labiovelars. Some arguments for that are ...
- In the Mycenaean inscriptions, the symbol used to transcribe the disyllabic sound 'k-w' is often same as that used to transcribe unisyllabic labiovelar 'kʷ'.
- In Mycenaean inscriptions, the same symbol appears where later epic Greek uses a labial, palatalized dental, or a velar. Just as reconstructed by PIE.
Even if all specialists like Chadwick, Ventris and Sihler who have analyzed Minoan Inscriptions and Linear A, B syllabaries are incorrect, and you are right, they cannot be Sanskrit's palatal 'ć' because:
The cognates where Sanskrit always has 'ć', the Mycenaean inscriptions sometimes have the aforesaid labiovelar symbol (q) and sometimes a pure velar.
Myc. a-pi-qo-lo for Epic Greek amphipolos where as sanskrit has 'abhićara'
Myc. qo-u-ko-lo for Epic greek boukolos whereas sanskrit has 'goćara'
Again correctly predicted by PIE reconstruction laws of dissimilation.
If you check Sanskrit cognates, they are abhićara and goćara respectively. Now Sanskrit 'ć' cannot be represented by Linear-B script's 'q' as well as 'k'.
All that the inscription proves is that Myc Greek was confused about interpreting a certain sound pair it faced in usage. It was aware that this pair was sometimes used in such quick succession, that it seemed a phonetic unit on its own - and gave it a single symbol - but retained use of both the compacted form as well as separates. This inscription does not rule out such a confusion in facing dual interpretation/usage of ć.