I was talking about homophobia which you seem to have mistaken for homosexuality - the exact opposite.
Yikes! I saw the term homophobia and I overlooked it! My bad.
Bible is homophobic - that means it expressly condemns homosexuality and even goes so far as to mandate killing of homosexuals. This is in contrast with the prevailing view in most of the societies which say that what people do in their bedrooms is their private matter. You may disagree with them.
So would you condone molesting children, if someone does that in the privacy of their bedroom? Where do we draw the line? I am not stating that we ought to invade the privacy of people. But if your question is does the Holy Bible condemn homosexuality, then yes it does. It is not about being homophobic, as ultimately we all belong to God. He is not afraid of homosexuals. Why would he be?
Romans 1:27 "And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."
Romans 1:32 "Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death
, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them."
This is exactly my message - that you cannot claim 'biblical inerrancy' and then find obscure contexts to justify the writings in Bible to suit current times/opinions or what is acceptable to you.
But none of the verses you provided actually proved otherwise.
There are verses where Jesus asks his followers to procure swords by selling their shirts and then there are famous verses where Jesus admonishes them that those who live by the sword will perish by it. In Luke and Mark, Jesus claims that 'those who are not against us are with us' while in Matthew he claims the opposite 'he that is not with me is against me'. There are verses where salvation is available only to those who accept the word of god while there are several other verses where god will reward men by their words and works or by works only.
Please provide these verses, so I can understand what you are saying. Thanks.
You talked about Ephesians 5:26 (I was hoping you would
). In 5:24 a wife is commanded to 'respect' and 'submit' to husband while in 26 a husband is asked to 'love' the wife. Does it not sound grossly unequal to you ? It does to me and we can agree to disagree on the interpretation.
But like I mentioned earlier, you are taking the term submit
in the wrong context. It is not the submission like an animal has to his master. That is not
the submit that God is talking about or requiring. See what Ephesians 5:21 says "Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God." So in here God is asking both the husband and the wife to submit to one another. So going by your logic of submit, now there is unequality on both sides.
You yourself claimed that there are thousands of examples where people misquote or misread or misinterpret bible to their own nefarious ends. This is the crux of the matter. If you judge people by a book that you have no control over, the same book is liable to be misused in justifying really horrible deeds.
The laws of God are not the laws of man. So when God says in Deuteronomy 14:2 "For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God, and the LORD hath chosen thee to be a peculiar people unto himself, above all the nations that are upon the earth.
" is not even remotely close to an Evanjehadist claiming that God loves you based on reading John 3:16 which says, "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." He can quote that to you, because he knows more than likely you will not read John 3:18 which says, "He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already,
because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."
Thus in the Deuteronomy 14:2, God had already decided that the Jews were going to be His chosen people on planet earth. You had people all over the world - including India - practising a host of other religons when the book of Deuteronomy was being written by Moses. But God chose the Jews to be His chosen people. It is plainly stated so in that verse. Now you can consider that to make no sense whatsoever to you and that is perfectly fine for you. I cannot force you to believe nothing.
The Bible has been misused in justifying really horrible deeds, but how is that God's fault? My judgements are based on what my faith has led me to understand. But at no point am I forcing that understanding on to anyone else.
BTW thanks for a very civil discussion, I am enjoying it and hope I have not offended you or your beliefs.
Same to you as well. I am not offended and neither are my beliefs.