Barath wrote:Nikhil T wrote:Can any gurus enlighten why India got into a seemingly unequal treaty? 25% water share with >80% population share? There must be more to it.
Wiki seems straightforward
Pakistan was insisting on historical right to all the waters of Indus tributaries. (the pre-partition distribution). Plus they were arguing that West Punjab would be desertified so they needed the water . On the flip side, India was the upper riparian state and thus had control of the waters. But de facto there was not much development projects on either side to actually use the water. India proposed partition of rivers with 3 eastern river being given to india and 3 western rivers beng given to Pakistan. The World bank essentially agreed to Indian proposal...
Because of long negotiation, India had large development projects for irrigation etc being held up.
The flow in the western rivers is more and thus the water 'share' is more. But India still gets to use/utilise those waters, but not to consume them up, except for domestic and limited agri use. To this day, India is still not using the share of that water fully. (though hopefully it will soon).
If you count population, then population of Pakistan that used these rivers will be huge compared to population that used the rivers in Indian control. Plus India is allowed to use water of 3 western rivers for domestic use , ie for local population.
Pakistan wanted to drag India to International court, ( where they would have likely used pe-partition distribution). India refused.
wiki has not touched upon the cashmere factor and the ameriki influence brought to bear to concede such outrageously and foolishly generous terms to the pakis.
cha cha che che had a hand in this as well. His innate ego was cleverly appealed to and off went most of India's share of the waters.
the guy was an unmitigated disaster.