Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

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Rudradev
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Rudradev »

A_Gupta wrote:
JE Menon wrote:Can someone explain why these are, first of all, classified as "Ancestral North Indian" and "Ancestral South Indian"? Might they not be just as viably classified as Ancestral East Indian and Ancestral West Indian?
Probably because there is a north-south gradient of ANI and ASI components, not an east-west component?
Yes, that is why.

Because the gradient distribution of these components *today* runs approximately north to south.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

JE Menon wrote:Can someone explain why these are, first of all, classified as "Ancestral North Indian" and "Ancestral South Indian"? Might they not be just as viably classified as Ancestral East Indian and Ancestral West Indian?
In general the admixture of ASI and ANI varies from 60:40 in the south to 40:60 in the north. I think only Kashmiris and Pashtuns have a 30:70 ASI:ANI ratio.

Still - it is a pretty thorough mix with the tribal forager in Orissa having a good mix of the same genes as a Kashmiri Pandit or a Jat. This kind of gene mixture is not found, for example among Iranians, Turks or Europeans - even if they share R1

I have not re read the paper recently but the admixture dates back to 12000 years or more.

I am now going to dig up that paper and find images of a tribal and a Paki and post them on Twitter pointing out the genetic similarity. Phor phun
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by JE Menon »

Thanks folks.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by UlanBatori »

tribal and a Paki
I think a direct link from our Nicobar brethren to our Original (paki) Descendants of Mohenjodaro would be most excellent. With pics, pls. I hope the Nicobar brethren forgive us for the insult, it is in a good cause. My sense is that the big difference is the TFTA-ness which CLEARLY indicates a dominant goat-DNA (GNA) and some dog DNA that contributes to TFTAness. So pls also post a pic of Brinjej Ayesha, Queen of the Khyber Slopes so ppl can see the difference.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Rudradev »

shiv wrote:
JE Menon wrote:Can someone explain why these are, first of all, classified as "Ancestral North Indian" and "Ancestral South Indian"? Might they not be just as viably classified as Ancestral East Indian and Ancestral West Indian?
In general the admixture of ASI and ANI varies from 60:40 in the south to 40:60 in the north. I think only Kashmiris and Pashtuns have a 30:70 ASI:ANI ratio.

Still - it is a pretty thorough mix with the tribal forager in Orissa having a good mix of the same genes as a Kashmiri Pandit or a Jat. This kind of gene mixture is not found, for example among Iranians, Turks or Europeans - even if they share R1

I have not re read the paper recently but the admixture dates back to 12000 years or more.
Not quite.

The Moorjani paper uses a technique based on measuring covariance between pairs of genetic markers in the ancestral groups, and estimates the time range for possible large-scale admixture of ANI with ASI between 1900 and 4200 years ago.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3769933/

A separate paper, by Vahia et al http://journals.plos.org/plosone/articl ... ne.0176985 , uses a very different technique based on estimating population diffusion patterns (which I reviewed briefly here viewtopic.php?p=2157220#p2157220). Their estimated time range for large-scale admixture of ANI with ASI is between 6000 to 4000 years ago.

The 12,500 years figure per Moorjani is the minimum time before present when there was any common ancestor between ANI and West Eurasians.

So, combining the Moorjani and Vahia lines of evidence,
1) ANI-ASI mixed together on a large scale between 4000 and 6000 years ago.
2) ANI was long gone from Europe/West Eurasia much before the ANI-ASI large scale admixture happened... if indeed they were ever in West Eurasia at all (the "common ancestor" could have traveled in the other direction, from India to West Eurasia, starting in the 12500 ybp time frame).

Admixture time frames only provide the latest of late bounds for presence of the ancestral groups within India. There is no reason why ANI and ASI could not have both been in India for thousands of years before large-scale admixture occurred. In fact, given how vast Bharata is, it is not at all surprising that relatively small populations (ANI, ASI, AAA) could have wandered about the subcontinent without ever encountering much of each other, or interbreeding significantly at all, for thousands of years. Even a distance of 100 kms between groups of ancestral populations, or physical/geographical features we would consider insignificant today, would have posed barriers to large-scale interbreeding.

The 6000-4000 ybp time frame suits OOI very well. It spans the period from the emergence of the first city states in Indus/Saraswati Valleys to the apex of the ISV civilization. It makes ample sense that this period of "urbanization", commerce, and unprecedentedly large settlements would have drawn all kinds of different people belonging to different ancestral groups into the cities. That is exactly when and where large-scale admixtures between ancestral populations would be expected to occur. It is also when something resembling a "culture" beyond that of nomadic hunter-gatherers would have begun to crystallize... a synthesis of memes, legends, narratives, and knowledge systems.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

When I first read the Reich paper I was a little irritated by the terms ASI & ANI (Ancestral South/North Indian). I knew as soon as I read it that it would be used politically to exploit caste divisions. It would be used by Dravidian parties in Tamil Nadu to accuse Brahmins of being foreigners and further pressure them It would be used to claim that "dravidians" are a separate race from North Indian Aryans. it would be used to say that Aryan Hindi speakers were separate from Dravidian language speakers. It would be exploited by evangelists to say that upper castes were oppressors and that only conversion would bring equality.

Exactly that has happened. No amount of wriggling and throwing arcane genetics jargon into the media can change this because no one actually understands.

People who protest against the Aryan Migration theory will only fight a losing battle unless they can collect their wits and see why they are struggling so much - and these are my views.

Trying to prove "Out of India" is a waste of time even it it can be proven to be 100% true because no one will believe it. The population "mass" in India either don;t give a damn or already think Aryan Invasion occurred. It is completely the wrong tactic to try and turn that 180 degrees and say "out of India". Perhaps even these threads need renaming.

The first thing to do is to set aside all "Out of India" arguments for a later date

Most Indians confuse migration with Aryan migration. What everyone forgets - even the people who argue and discuss genetics is that the name "Aryan" is a language derived name. And the name Aryan is linked solidly to Sanskrit and related European languages. The entire "Aryan migration" topic was about how and when Sanskrit came to India. This was the first "You farted" suggestion. I will explain the "you farted" tactic in a separate post.

Once the Linguists claimed that Aryan brought Sanskrit to India they had the upper hand and after that all of us so called "Right wingers" look like complete idiots reacting to that and struggling against it.

Genetics is not going to prove or disprove this or change anything. We have to tear down the original story that claimed that Aryans brought language to India. We are fortunate that linguists and historians have restricted their claims to 1500 BC and are now stuck with that date. If they go any earlier their language came to India story will be screwed. We are also fortunate that there is no evidence of Sanskrit in any land other than India and the Vedas very very firmly base themselves in Indian geography - Witzel can be safely rejected here.

The first thing is to collect all the evidence that points towards Sanskrit being older than 1500 BC. My entire "book" was researched with that in mind and I came up with a lot of info that is out there. I will from time to time try and condense what I can into articles in the media - perhaps Swarajya if they accept them. The lay media and Wiki (like ye olde encyclopedias) are full of fake dates. For example Panini has been dated around 500-600 BC. In fact Panini's work seems to have been done before the Atharva Veda was established. Atharva Veda itself is dated by Western AITians as 1000 BC. Zoroastrians are supposed to have used the Bhargava Atharva veda as their book and that was around 1000 BC. Panini was from an era when Vedic sanskrit was replaced by "Classical Sanskrit".

The local language where Panini lived appears to have been Sanskrit or one of the Prakrits. But the 600 BC date given for Panini conflicts with the fact that Gandhara, where he lived was under Darius and the Persians at that time and the language was Old Persian. It is quite likely that Panini himself was pre 1000 BC and this is all from western sources. No right wing Hindu sources at all.

Similarly the dating and area of the Saraswati river is all available from western authors. References in Sanskrit to "Vinasana" (where the Saraswati dried up) are all from western authors and archaeological explorations of those same sites have dated them prior to 1800 BC.

And I have not even started talking about astronomical events from Sanskrit texts

It is necessary to understand what "Aryan invasion means" without addressing the fundamental link of lies told by linguists and Indologists this issue will not die. I have said all this in previous avatars of this thread. I am saying it again hoping that pressure is applied in the correct areas rather than reacting to idiots every time they fart.

I am certain there are huge out of India things waiting to be thrown up - but that will simply be rejected because everyone has already bought the AIT story. I predict that ANYTHING in genetics that shows a population inflow into India will be declared "Aryan invasion" even if it was 40,000 years ago. We are on a losing wicket unless we address the fact that Aryan means white invader bringing language from a specific area of Eurasia as per current "accepted wisdom". That is a fake story - but the story must be told before rejecting it.

Finally struggling against the Nazi connection with Aryans and Sanskrit is wrong. There is a connection - but not what people might imagine. I wil put that in my net article. I might also do one on an introduction to genetics for the layman. All this work is already done. I just have to condense into articles.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

Rudradev wrote:
A separate paper, by Vahia et al http://journals.plos.org/plosone/articl ... ne.0176985 , uses a very different technique based on estimating population diffusion patterns (which I reviewed briefly here viewtopic.php?p=2157220#p2157220). Their estimated time range for large-scale admixture of ANI with ASI is between 6000 to 4000 years ago.
I have a small problem with the Vahia paper. Here is what I mean. I quote from Vahia
we restrict our study only to the tribes studied directly by Basu et al. [14] and Sharma et al. [48] since these are the only tribes in Central India, our region of interest where different population groups are seen to merge in the course of our simulations.
Earlier I had done an Excel spreadsheet of ASI/ANI percentages found in the Reich paper that had the classifications by upper and lower caste and tribal as well as IE or Dravidian language. All groups taken together showed a distribution of ASI:ANI that varied from 70:30 to 40:60. But taking ONLY the tribals - the admixture was only around 50:50 or 40:60. What Vahia et al have done is to use the central India component of this group because their simulations showed merging in central India.

In fact this simulation as far as I can tell does not take into account the fact that these tribals may have been the last to merge because even today in 2017 they live in hostile/isolated geographical terrain. Even today you have castes and tribes as separate classifications. If the tribes admixed around 4000-6000 years ago I posit that the others probably admixed far earlier. This is a hypothesis but I state it because the sample population in the Vahia paper is very narrow.

However the 4000-6000 ybp date is still good enough to throw a spanner in the "Language came to northwest India in 1500 BC/3500 ybp" theory. For those who are put off by this weird genetic jargon the summary of the Vahia paper is that by 2000 BC even the tribals in central India had a thorough mix of the two gentic lines "ASI" and ANI". ANI also is NOT European or West Asian. It is unique to India
Last edited by shiv on 27 Jun 2017 22:35, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by sanjaykumar »

The contention that Christianity is a liberator of oppressed peoples, naturally darker skinned, is perhaps at variance to the historical record.

I would like to facilitate emigration of a number of Dravidian padres to any nominally Christian society as a noble experiment in gently opening eyes and prying open minds
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

From a post I made in 2003: The "You Farted" game

There is a particularly irritating psychological trick that you may have had played on you, and perhaps you are guilty of playing it yourself. People do it all the time - but it is educative to find influential groups and nations playing that trick. India and Indians with their passive "satyameva jayate" - all is open and visible lifestyles are particular suckers for this game.

The "game" or trick is to get a person on the defensive with an unprovoked accusation. The agenda and tone is set by the accuser and the passive personality goes on the defensive right from the start.

Let me explain. For clarity I will call it the "You farted" game

A group of people are sitting together - say 6 or 7 friends in a hostel room. Suddenly the foul smell of a fart wafts up.

An accuser personality (call him 'A') picks out a passive personality ('P') and says "Hey P, you farted"

P protests "No I did not"

A: "Yes you did"

P: "Shut up and stop accusing me"

A:"He Ha. It's OK. No need to cover your guilt by getting angry. I know you farted. We don't mind - just warn us next time.

What happens in this exchange is that the Accuser 'A' has the initiative all the time. He sets the pace, and he sets the Agenda. He may actually have farted himself, but he gets away giving the impression that "P" is guilty.

Note that this is a complex human exchange and not something that can be described in a few simple words.

Now see how this is applied by groups and nations. The trick is used by Amnesty, Greenpeace, Pakistan against India and a whole load of "Western" organizations use this against many others - but I am only interested in the way it is used against India.

The usual string of "accusations" we face are:
1)Pollution
2)Disease
3)Noise
4)Corruption
5)Religious freedom
6)Population
7) bride burning
8 )Hindu fundamentalists are raking up trouble for moderate Pakistan
9) Aryans came to India and brought the language from Europe
10) Add lynching to that..

The Joseph article is an example of that. It resulted in a flurry of reactive defensive articles. And that has now been followed by an article that says "Why is the Aryan invasion fatal to Hindutva" which is the equivalent of :
He Ha. It's OK. No need to cover your guilt by getting angry. I know you farted. We don't mind - just warn us next time.
PS: This is a variant of gaslighting and I credit LokeshC for educating me about gaslighting
Last edited by shiv on 27 Jun 2017 22:49, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Rudradev »

shiv wrote:
Rudradev wrote:
A separate paper, by Vahia et al http://journals.plos.org/plosone/articl ... ne.0176985 , uses a very different technique based on estimating population diffusion patterns (which I reviewed briefly here viewtopic.php?p=2157220#p2157220). Their estimated time range for large-scale admixture of ANI with ASI is between 6000 to 4000 years ago.
I have a small problem with the Vahia paper. Here is what I mean. I quote from Vahia
we restrict our study only to the tribes studied directly by Basu et al. [14] and Sharma et al. [48] since these are the only tribes in Central India, our region of interest where different population groups are seen to merge in the course of our simulations.
Earlier I had done an Excel spreadsheet of ASI/ANI percentages found in the Reich paper that had the classifications by upper and lower caste and tribal as well as IE or Dravidian language. All groups taken together showed a distribution of ASI:ANI that varied from 70:30 to 40:60. But taking ONLY the tribals - the admixture was only around 50:50 or 40:60. What Vahia et al have done is to use the central India component of this group because their simulations showed merging in central India.

In fact this simulation as far as I can tell does not take into account the fact that these tribals may have been the last to merge because even today in 2017 they live in hostile/isolated geographical terrain. Even today you have castes and tribes as separate classifications. If the tribes admixed around 4000-6000 years ago I posit that the others probably admixed far earlier. This is a hypothesis but I state it because the sample population in the Vahia paper is very narrow.
...
You're right. There is another problem too... Vahia et al set the t-zero for their diffusion simulations at 10k ybp. Why so late, if ANI was in India 45k ypb and ASI 60 ybp?

They explain:
Our present study has been carried out over a period of about 10,000 years before the present era; as timescales for geological changes are considerably longer than this, it is appropriate for us to make use of contemporary geographical data.
Which is basically saying "we couldn't claim our simulation model was reliable if we started any further back than that".

So it doesn't rule out admixture earlier than 6000 ybp by any means.

However, even with the late t-zero and the selection of samples only from Central Indian tribes, it does provide a parsimonious estimation of "late bound" admixture timeframe which isn't friendly to the "1500 BC" charlatans. (I see you made that observation too in your edited post)

Have you posted the spreadsheet of the Reich ASI/ANI percentages anywhere online?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

Rudradev wrote: However, even with the late t-zero and the selection of samples only from Central Indian tribes, it does provide a parsimonious estimation of "late bound" admixture timeframe which isn't friendly to the "1500 BC" charlatans. (I see you made that observation too in your edited post)

Have you posted the spreadsheet of the Reich ASI/ANI percentages anywhere online?
I worry because the 4000 ybp date will be pounced upon and digested by AITians

The spreadsheet values are here - you can copy-paste and play though the file itself is non editable
https://drive.google.com/file/d/0B3JNY4 ... sp=sharing
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

SriJoy is essentially correct. The Indian civilization has, for whatever reason, not the kind of historical records that e.g., the Romans kept. Balagangadhara's theory is that these kind of records & historiography were found not to be particularly important to human happiness; and the Indians had a different way of relating to, and learning from, the past.

e.g.,
http://www.hipkapi.com/2012/02/16/what- ... angadhara/
Why ‘study’ the past instead of recounting your community’s story about the past? I mean, why are we not satisfied in recounting Ramayana, Mahabharata, puranas, etc as our stories about our past? What do we need to study and why? To these questions, there is a plausible sounding answer: ‘we need to know whether these stories are true’. Ask again why: Why do we need to know whether these stories are true? After all, as we believe, these stories have been in circulation for millennia and they have adequately and admirably met the needs of our ancestors (and most of our contemporaries as well) in their quest for human flourishing. So, what extra reasons exist to ‘study’ the past?

Here is the first possible answer, which takes the form of a question: what if our stories about the past turn out to be false? Let me answer it with a counter-question: so what? What does it matter whether what we believe about our past is true or false as long as it helps us in human flourishing? One can choose truth above falsehood if (a) truth about the past helps us live better as human beings and (b) falsehood damages us. Without answering these questions, one cannot provide extra reasons to study the past.

Here is a second possible answer that attempts to sidestep the issue: “we need to know the truth about the past because only as such do we have knowledge about the past. We do not need to justify this knowledge about the past any further because, surely, knowledge is its own justification.” However, this answer too does not work. Why?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

In the spectrum that I am constructing for the purposes of this piece, these two attitudes reveal two faces of the same coin. One face looks at the tales of the past of their peoples and cultures as disguised historical narration but discovers some ‘kernel’ of truth in such narrations. It assumes, in a manner of speaking, that other people somehow did not know how to compose historical narratives (or did not care to do so) and that one has to ‘interpret’ these stories to extract the ‘truth’ from such stories. This is how, for example, the European intellectuals looked at the Greek myths during the Italian Renaissance. They felt that the Greek legends talked of human virtues but that these narratives represented such virtues (like courage, bravery, generosity, justice, etc) in the form of ‘heroes’ and ‘gods’. So, one had to ‘sympathetically’ read the myths and the legends of the Ancient Greek society to really understand what they are trying to say.

The ‘heroes’ of the European Enlightenment, by contrast, exemplify the second face of the coin. In their ‘Quarrel with the Ancients’, they were vitriolic in their assessment of the achievements of the Ancient Greek society, especially their myths and legends. Opposed to these myths and legends, which were mere stories and products of wild human imagination, stand ‘facts’ and ‘history’. One merely reads these stories for ‘entertainment’; to ascribe to them any other status is to live under an illusion. They were lies about the past which the poets constructed. The Ancients, with the exception of historians like Thucydides, really produced myths and legends. Instead of enlightening us about ‘what the past was really like’, these stories deceive us.

Common to both these attitudes is the idea that we ‘ought not’ to take these stories about the past seriously. Such stories are not about the past; these are merely products of the human imagination. Only historiography can teach us about the past and, if we care about the past at all, we should care about ‘history’. In other words, what these two attitudes say is the following: they claim that our stories about the past are not about anything real. They do not speak about objects or events in the world. If we are perceptive enough, these stories tell us something about the world of the authors indirectly; they do also tell us about the nature of human imagination. In and of themselves, these stories are really about nothing. If this is true, huge questions open up which they never even address: why did people from earlier generations produce all those stories? Why, instead of talking about the world, did they write only fiction? If Thucydides could write empirical history, why could Valmiki or Vyasa not be able to do the same? And so on.
In order to destroy the past of a people, all you need to do is to give them history.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

The rise of the mouse is connected with the rise of agriculture, and at least one major lineage of mouse grew out of North India/Pakistan.
http://www.nature.com/hdy/journal/v111/ ... 1360a.html

A response to the rise of mice is the rise of the cat, supposedly from Turkey or thereabouts:
http://www.smithsonianmag.com/science-n ... 180963749/
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by peter »

SriJoy wrote:....For e.g., i can find actual, 2000 year old documents manual for making certain kinds of bronze in Roman empire 100 times more frequently and easily than Indian history.
Since you are a metallurgist? would you know how Indian steel reached damascus? Would you also know how Indian lohars made the delhi iron pillar? Do note: not having a record for your or my perusal does not negate the existence of knowledge be it of steel or iron pillar.
Srijoy wrote:
I am simply making an observation from seeing history for decades now- our records-keeping is less qualitative and quantitative than certain other parts of the world in certain time-frames. this is also what overly-politicizes Indian history for part,because our body of raw data is far narrower.
No. What politicises our history is incompetent scholars and scholars who have agendas. World over archaeo-astronomy is becoming a valid field but not yet in India. Do you know the reasons?
Srijoy wrote: As you noted, earliest evidence of agriculture we have so far, is right after ice age/just as ice age was ending, i.e., 9500 years- 10,000 years ago.
What do you think all these pots from 14000 BC were being used for:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pottery#History_by_region
The earliest-known ceramic objects are Gravettian figurines such as those discovered at Dolní Věstonice in the modern-day Czech Republic. The Venus of Dolní Věstonice is a Venus figurine, a statuette of a nude female figure dated to 29,000–25,000 BC (Gravettian industry).[6]

The earliest pottery vessels date back to 20,000 BP and were discovered in Xianrendong cave in Jiangxi, China.[39][40] The pottery may have been used as cookware.[39] Other early pottery vessels include those excavated from the Yuchanyan Cave in southern China, dated from 16,000 BC,[41] and those found in the Amur River basin in the Russian Far East, dated from 14,000 BC.[8][42]

The Odai Yamamoto I site, belonging to the Jomon period, currently has the oldest pottery in Japan. Excavations in 1998 uncovered earthenware fragments which have been dated as early as 14,500 BC (ca 16,500 BP).[43] The term "Jōmon" means "cord-marked" in Japanese. This refers to the markings made on the vessels and figures using sticks with cords during their production. Recent research has elucidated how Jomon pottery was used by its creators.[44]
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

^^^ Follow the Wiki links:
http://www.nature.com/nature/journal/v4 ... 12109.html
Earliest evidence for the use of pottery
Pottery was a hunter-gatherer innovation that first emerged in East Asia between 20,000 and 12,000 calibrated years before present1, 2 (cal bp), towards the end of the Late Pleistocene epoch, a period of time when humans were adjusting to changing climates and new environments. Ceramic container technologies were one of a range of late glacial adaptations that were pivotal to structuring subsequent cultural trajectories in different regions of the world, but the reasons for their emergence and widespread uptake are poorly understood. The first ceramic containers must have provided prehistoric hunter-gatherers with attractive new strategies for processing and consuming foodstuffs, but virtually nothing is known of how early pots were used. Here we report the chemical analysis of food residues associated with Late Pleistocene pottery, focusing on one of the best-studied prehistoric ceramic sequences in the world, the Japanese Jōmon. We demonstrate that lipids can be recovered reliably from charred surface deposits adhering to pottery dating from about 15,000 to 11,800 cal bp (the Incipient Jōmon period), the oldest pottery so far investigated, and that in most cases these organic compounds are unequivocally derived from processing freshwater and marine organisms. Stable isotope data support the lipid evidence and suggest that most of the 101 charred deposits analysed, from across the major islands of Japan, were derived from high-trophic-level aquatic food. Productive aquatic ecotones were heavily exploited by late glacial foragers3, perhaps providing an initial impetus for investment in ceramic container technology, and paving the way for further intensification of pottery use by hunter-gatherers in the early Holocene epoch. Now that we have shown that it is possible to analyse organic residues from some of the world’s earliest ceramic vessels, the subsequent development of this critical technology can be clarified through further widespread testing of hunter-gatherer pottery from later periods.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

^^^ likewise:
http://www.uh.edu/engines/epi359.htm
The Dolni Vestonice Venus is part of the oldest known set of ceramic sculpture. She was no isolated fluke. We find two kilns on the site. They were surrounded by 7000 fired ceramic fragments. Our Stone Age ancestors weren't fooling around. They were seriously producing art objects.

They weren't yet good at firing clay. The objects were heated to 1300oF, and most of them show thermal cracks. These ceramics probably had no practical purpose. They certainly weren't made to last. What we're seeing is art for the moment. It is the strong expression of a few people who developed a technology for showing us what was in their minds.
...
Cave painting preceded the great artistic outpouring of the Gravettian period. In that period, an astonishing range of new techniques joined cave painting. These Czech ceramics were only one of many Gravettian artistic experiments. They weren't followed by better ceramics. They just died out when the people who made them died.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

http://science.sciencemag.org/content/336/6089/1696
Early Pottery at 20,000 Years Ago in Xianrendong Cave, China
Pots and Crocks

The invention of pottery allowed for more secure storage of food than was provided by baskets or hide pouches, and the vessels could also be used in cooking. The earliest pottery has been thought to have appeared in China and Japan ∼18,000 years ago, several thousands of years before the advent of agriculture. Wu et al. (p. 1696); see the Perspective by Shelach) have now dated broken pieces of pottery from a cave in China, the earliest of which date to ∼20,000 years ago, the time of the Last Glacial Maximum. Scorch marks on many pieces imply that the pottery was used in cooking.

Abstract

The invention of pottery introduced fundamental shifts in human subsistence practices and sociosymbolic behaviors. Here, we describe the dating of the early pottery from Xianrendong Cave, Jiangxi Province, China, and the micromorphology of the stratigraphic contexts of the pottery sherds and radiocarbon samples. The radiocarbon ages of the archaeological contexts of the earliest sherds are 20,000 to 19,000 calendar years before the present, 2000 to 3000 years older than other pottery found in East Asia and elsewhere. The occupations in the cave demonstrate that pottery was produced by mobile foragers who hunted and gathered during the Late Glacial Maximum. These vessels may have served as cooking devices. The early date shows that pottery was first made and used 10 millennia or more before the emergence of agriculture.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by peter »

A_Gupta wrote:http://science.sciencemag.org/content/336/6089/1696
Early Pottery at 20,000 Years Ago in Xianrendong Cave, China
Pots and Crocks

The invention of pottery allowed for more secure storage of food than was provided by baskets or hide pouches, and the vessels could also be used in cooking. The earliest pottery has been thought to have appeared in China and Japan ∼18,000 years ago, several thousands of years before the advent of agriculture. Wu et al. (p. 1696); see the Perspective by Shelach) have now dated broken pieces of pottery from a cave in China, the earliest of which date to ∼20,000 years ago, the time of the Last Glacial Maximum. Scorch marks on many pieces imply that the pottery was used in cooking.

Abstract

The invention of pottery introduced fundamental shifts in human subsistence practices and sociosymbolic behaviors. Here, we describe the dating of the early pottery from Xianrendong Cave, Jiangxi Province, China, and the micromorphology of the stratigraphic contexts of the pottery sherds and radiocarbon samples. The radiocarbon ages of the archaeological contexts of the earliest sherds are 20,000 to 19,000 calendar years before the present, 2000 to 3000 years older than other pottery found in East Asia and elsewhere. The occupations in the cave demonstrate that pottery was produced by mobile foragers who hunted and gathered during the Late Glacial Maximum. These vessels may have served as cooking devices. The early date shows that pottery was first made and used 10 millennia or more before the emergence of agriculture.
Would these arguments suggest kingships only emerged after man became vegetarian?

So long he consumed fish and lipids and other meats he remained king less?

All these arguments of the type no evidence for this or that is in the category :"Absence of Evidence does not imply ....."
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

peter wrote: Would these arguments suggest kingships only emerged after man became vegetarian?

So long he consumed fish and lipids and other meats he remained king less?

All these arguments of the type no evidence for this or that is in the category :"Absence of Evidence does not imply ....."
Man did not become vegetarian. Man, like monkeys, was "omnivorous". Humans have long intestines like cows - required to digest roots and nuts and shit out lots of fiber. Also man has a lot of flat teeth for grinding and almost no tearing teeth for flesh. So man did not "become vegetarian". He was vegetarian when he got veg food and a meat eater when he got that. That aside flesh eaters generally have wide jaws and throats that allow swallowing of huge chunks. Man can only swallow tablet sized chunks that are created by chewing and chewing and chewing between flat teeth. That is why man also prefers cooked meat.

There are two points to be considered here
1. Agriculture allowed leisure which daily hunting did not
2. Agriculture forced settlements of people in fertile regions to sow, water and harvest crops

That is why communities developed local leaders later called "kings". No proof, but consider that hunter gatherers have to be on the move and have to hunt or forage frequently to keep eating.

Of course hunter gatherers may have had leaders - but they did not have to protect settled territory where crops were being grown. So there is a difference. A king by definition owns and defends territory. He does not run from tree to tree to sleep here one day and somewhere else the next day.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by peter »

shiv wrote:
peter wrote: Would these arguments suggest kingships only emerged after man became vegetarian?

So long he consumed fish and lipids and other meats he remained king less?

All these arguments of the type no evidence for this or that is in the category :"Absence of Evidence does not imply ....."
Man did not become vegetarian. Man, like monkeys, was "omnivorous". Humans have long intestines like cows - required to digest roots and nuts and shit out lots of fiber. Also man has a lot of flat teeth for grinding and almost no tearing teeth for flesh. So man did not "become vegetarian". He was vegetarian when he got veg food and a meat eater when he got that. That aside flesh eaters generally have wide jaws and throats that allow swallowing of huge chunks. Man can only swallow tablet sized chunks that are created by chewing and chewing and chewing between flat teeth. That is why man also prefers cooked meat.

There are two points to be considered here
1. Agriculture allowed leisure which daily hunting did not
2. Agriculture forced settlements of people in fertile regions to sow, water and harvest crops

That is why communities developed local leaders later called "kings". No proof, but consider that hunter gatherers have to be on the move and have to hunt or forage frequently to keep eating.

Of course hunter gatherers may have had leaders - but they did not have to protect settled territory where crops were being grown. So there is a difference. A king by definition owns and defends territory. He does not run from tree to tree to sleep here one day and somewhere else the next day.
If we believe man to be an animal then turf war over hunting grounds would be common. Lions have a king, so do gorillas and the wolves.

Besides you don't easily carry pots around. You come back to them.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

peter wrote:
If we believe man to be an animal then turf war over hunting grounds would be common. Lions have a king, so do gorillas and the wolves.

Besides you don't easily carry pots around. You come back to them.
Of course. I mentioned hunter gatherers in my post - they are like wolves. But these animals do not hold territory rigidly. For agriculture territory needs to be held because of fertile soil, and water source. It was fixed, protected settlements that allowed human populations to go up into hundreds and thousands. Lions, gorillas and wolves never lead such numbers. Cattle have huge herds but no fixed territory. Ants have both fixed territory and huge numbers - just like humans. they also have a queen and soldiers.

Pots are no use unless you put something in them. Either you carry pots to where the resource is (like water) or you fill the pots with stuff carried in baskets. The filled pots need to be protected. "No trespassing" signs don't work. Animals (squirrels, birds, rats) searching for food do not care who filled the pots and will help themselves. So you need people sitting and protecting full pots unless just one or two are hidden away. Those people sitting near the pots are the settlement
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by SBajwa »

by SriJoy
I am simply making an observation from seeing history for decades now- our records-keeping is less qualitative and quantitative than certain other parts of the world in certain time-frames. this is also what overly-politicizes Indian history for part,because our body of raw data is far narrower. It is not about the politics or optics about it, what is pretty clear, is that two main sources of history- periods of Imperial Chinese history ( Han, tang and song) and Roman Empire period of history, have orders of magnitude greater data - data that we have no credible reasons to doubt- such as ledger records, etc- than virtually any other records of pre-modern humanity.
Our data at Nalanda, Takshila and other universities was destroyed by Ghori, Ghaznavi, etc. Open up your eyes and look around India.
India has been traditionally the most fertile landmass with most arable land from centuries., as oppose to other places (till America was discovered by Columbus now it is #2). It is a perfect place for people to settle down and take up farming and/or trade with other places (due to peninsula). European centered world history does not make sense due to its harsh weather., etc. Because India always had a good weather ., many rivers, fertile land it was always rich and ready to be invaded by any barbarians.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Yayavar »

shiv wrote:
peter wrote: Would these arguments suggest kingships only emerged after man became vegetarian?

So long he consumed fish and lipids and other meats he remained king less?

All these arguments of the type no evidence for this or that is in the category :"Absence of Evidence does not imply ....."
Man did not become vegetarian. Man, like monkeys, was "omnivorous". Humans have long intestines like cows - required to digest roots and nuts and shit out lots of fiber. Also man has a lot of flat teeth for grinding and almost no tearing teeth for flesh. So man did not "become vegetarian". He was vegetarian when he got veg food and a meat eater when he got that. That aside flesh eaters generally have wide jaws and throats that allow swallowing of huge chunks. Man can only swallow tablet sized chunks that are created by chewing and chewing and chewing between flat teeth. That is why man also prefers cooked meat.

There are two points to be considered here
1. Agriculture allowed leisure which daily hunting did not
2. Agriculture forced settlements of people in fertile regions to sow, water and harvest crops

That is why communities developed local leaders later called "kings". No proof, but consider that hunter gatherers have to be on the move and have to hunt or forage frequently to keep eating.

Of course hunter gatherers may have had leaders - but they did not have to protect settled territory where crops were being grown. So there is a difference. A king by definition owns and defends territory. He does not run from tree to tree to sleep here one day and somewhere else the next day.
(Jumping into discussion on previous post..so hopefully not out of context)

Probably were scavengers of meat and vegetarians - hominids did not have enough in them to hunt big animals or faster animals till they somehow developed a mechanism to collaborate with each other and use tactics and tools to bring down agile and strong animals.

I was reading that the nomadic hunters in Amazon jungles hunt only once in a few days and are usually done by afternoon. They are of course more varied in what they eat - insects, fruits, animals, fish etc. So it is possible that the hunter-gatherers actually had a lot of time and that is what aided in the development to modern human. A farmer is always toiling - but did give more time to the ones who were not directly toiling in the fields.

Fire is known to have been used by homo erectus and other hominids 500K years back. That probably led to the shortening of intestine, being able to eat more plants which were tough (like grains), and avoiding raw meat. No need for big canines for ripping meat either.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by UlanBatori »

Farming is hard work. My take is that the big-time writing and contemplation was done by the Aryans newly arrived down the Khyber Expressway, sitting on the banks of the sluggish Indus delta waiting for fish to bite on their lines. Life of total leisure. They were also the first to start political discussions and invented the custom of Posting Posts on Threads: each Post was a wriggling worm tied to their fishing line, which is why series of Posts are even today called Threads. The threads were meant for the fish. So the collection of threads was called "For 'Em" meaning for the fish who came to swallow the Posts and got hooked on the threads.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

SriJoy wrote: 2. Archaeo-astronomy is not reliable anywhere, to my knowledge. Atleast not the Indian 'nakshatras were here in the sky' style.
If you understand what Indian nakshatras are I would request you to explain. Of course I can Google it - but it is possible that you don't know what you are saying. So please explain. There are numerous explanations available - an since you claim to be heavy on accuracy I would be happy to try and hear from you as to what is inaccurate about Indian astronomy, after which we can talk about the accuracy of archeo-astronomy
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by UlanBatori »

The Ancients did not have TV so they didn't have much to after dark except creating newer gene models, or looking up into the sky. So they devoted much time and care to astronomy. The instruments developed were pretty sophisticated, and used with extreme care.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

For the heck of it and for critiques from people like Nilesh Oak - I reproduce here a few paragraphs from my proposed book - for information and for debate
ASTRONOMICAL REFERENCES TO THE REMOTE PAST

Ancient Sanskrit texts have numerous astronomical references that actually refer to dates or eras in the past. But it would not be possible to comprehend this unless one can understand how astronomy, or a study of the stars can give us dates. Most people do not give stars a second glance, although it is difficult to ignore the sun and moon. But we live in an era when dates are fed to us from various electronic sources and calendars are available readily. Stars are less clearly visible today because of light pollution as night skies are brightly lit up by city lights and smog reduces the intensity and clarity of starlight. City skylines prevent the observation of events like sunrise and moonrise. Stars and astronomy by and large play a very minor role in our conscious lives, although all life on earth is fundamentally linked to a star, the sun.

All calendars are derived from the relative movement of the sun or moon with respect to the earth. The sun and moon appear to move across the sky in a cycle that alternates between day and night. From ancient days people have tracked the stars, planets, sun and moon to keep track of time, and every culture retains some memories of how their ancestors tracked time. Such records exist in Sanskrit in the Vedas and post Vedic texts, but it is necessary to learn a little bit about how the Vedic people kept track of time to understand the references to time.

The rotation of the earth causes night and day as different parts of the earth face the sun. The earth also circles around the sun once a year - which is about 365 days (actually it is 365 days 5 hours and 46 minutes). Days and nights are easy to notice, but years are marked by the changing of seasons in an endless cycle of spring, summer, autumn and winter. Seasons are caused because the earth is tilted off to one side like the leaning tower of Pisa and this tilt ensures that the northern half of the earth is tilted towards the sun for half the year, causing the summer season in the north, with long hot days and short pleasant nights, while the southern half has winter. with long cold nights and short days. In the second half of the year, the opposite happens, and the southern half tilts towards the sun and gets its dose of summer while the north gets winter. Exactly in between these two extremes are two days in which both the northern and southern halves of the earth face the sun at equal distance, ensuring that night and day are or equal length. These two days, typically on 22 September and 21st March have a name - called “equinox”. Equinox means “equal night”. 21st march marks the vernal equinox or the beginning of spring, and on the 22nd of September we have the autumnal equinox or the end of summer. And corresponding to these two equinox days are two days when the northern or southern half have a the longest day or night. This day is called a “solstice”, with June 21st being the longest day or summer solstice and December 21st being the shortest day or winter solstice.

Ancient Indians used the vernal equinox or the beginning of spring to mark the start of their new year. This is still followed in India today, and to get an idea of just how long this has been followed we need to look a little more closely at the calendar used in India from Vedic times to the modern day. The calendar used in India is called a “sidereal” calendar. The word sidereal means “compared to the stars” or “using the stars for comparison” The Indian calendar uses distant stars that appear to be fixed in one position as reference points to decide exactly when a year is completed. At the beginning of the year (on the first day of the spring, or vernal equinox), the position of the rising sun is noted in relation to a distant fixed star. The sun will be seen to deviate from this position every day until it returns exactly to this position after one year. That day would mark the beginning of the next year.

The year is divided up into twelve months, but those twelve months are lunar months. Twelve lunar months add up only to 354 days, that is 11 days shorter than a year. Indian tradition follows the lunar months and ancient astronomers realized that this was too inaccurate to keep track of a year, so they kept track of years by following the equinoxes using the sidereal method described earlier. The difference of 11 days or so between the twelve solar months and twelve lunar months was corrected by adding an extra “leap-month” approximately once in three years. This created an acceptably accurate system of keeping the lunar and solar calendars connected and accurate.

In addition to measuring years and months, each day of the year has a star related identity based on the stars or minor constellations (also called asterisms) that can be seen in line with the point at which the moon rises. Asterisms are important in the Indian calendar because there are 27 asterisms visible in the night sky and each of these is associated with a single day of a lunar month. The Indian word for asterism is “nakshatra”. The moon is tracked based on which nakshatra/asterism is visible in line with the point at which the moon rises. Every day, as the month progresses the moon is seen to be associated with a different nakshatra, and at the end of a lunar month the moon is back at the first nakshatra/asterism. This method too has an ancient record and is known from the time of the Rig Veda.

However the sidereal system of keeping track of the year by correlating the position of the sun with a fixed star leads to a slight error in the date of the equinoxes and solstices. Over a span of many centuries the link between the seasons and the month in which they occur will change. This error arises from a little complication in the way the earth wobbles as it rotates. It is a slow wobble that completes one cycle in about 26,000 years, This wobble is called “precession”. In the last 1,800 years precession has cause the Indian calendar to move the equinoxes so that the real equinox occurs about 3 weeks ahead of the equinox predicted by the sidereal calendar. For this reason the Indian calendar has been periodically adjusted over many centuries to keep the sidereal year synchronised with the solar year. This was done simply by re-assigning the month at which the year starts to correspond with the day of the real vernal equinox . It is most convenient to do this approximately every 2,000 years or so when the beginning of the year can be marked by the adjacent Zodiac sign/constellation. What this means is that the Hindu calendar will show “steps” of about 2,000 years based on which Zodiac star sign the year began with.

The naming of days, months, phases of the moon, equinoxes and solstices in relation to recognizable stars has a very interesting side effect. If a few critical details naming the month, moon phase and time of year (solstice or equinox) are found, the combination turns out to be a unique one that can pinpoint the date of the observation anytime in the last 26,000 years just as surely as one might say “26th November 2008”.
The information in the following passage has been sourced from David Frawley's book "God's Sages and Kings
Ancient records in the Vedas and post Vedic texts show that the start of the year, or vernal equinox has been marked in the distant past by different stars than are used today. This gives us dates going back to 3,000 BC and even earlier in some references. The vernal equinox, which is in the Uttarabhadra nakshatra today, in Bharani in 1,280 BC at the time of the Vedanga Jyotish. There are Vedic textual references to the vernal equinox in Kritika nakshatra (2,250 BC), Mriga-shira nakshatra (4,000 BC) and Punar-vasu nakshatra in 6,000 BC. Other references in the Brahmana texts refer to a Magha nakshatra full moon on the day of the winter solstice, dating back to 3,000 BC.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by A_Gupta »

^^^ Once the precession of the equinoxes is known, how does one know that references to the distant past are not retrodictions (predictions made backwards in time), but actual observations?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

.. a little point to note. The Hindu calendar requires correction every 2000 years or so. It was last corrected about 2000 years ago (need to check the date - but it is there). It is due for a correction now but I have heard that the various Hindu calendar keepers are not in agreement. Hence the Vernal equinox according to the Hindu calendar in 2017 is about 2 weeks off from the real vernal equinox. Will find info on this and post.

This information may be outdated because the vernal equinox of 2018 is on 20th March and our new year Ugadi will be on 18 march 2018. The calendar traditionally used in our home is the "Ontikoppal (that is a place) Kannada Panchanga"

Here is a scan of a page from David Frawley's book showing how the Hindu calendar has changed over the millennia
Image
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote:^^^ Once the precession of the equinoxes is known, how does one know that references to the distant past are not retrodictions (predictions made backwards in time), but actual observations?
There is no way of proving that. However - unless a calculation is done with some accuracy, or tables exist for the "retrodictions" going back several millennia and an adequately well informed person does the "retrodiction" the date is likely to end up being nonsensical and have no connection with what can be correlated as accurate using modern day calendars and computing. Perhaps Nilesh Oak may be able to throw more light on this.

On a side note I am astounded at the interest you (and others) show in truth, accuracy and honesty and how ignorant Indians in general (not you) about the fudging and lies from linguists and historians

Our education seems to have been a massive continental size act of "gaslighting" where we have been convinced that what we knew was rubbish but what we are told is always right
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by shiv »

Here is a pdf of the translation of the Vedanga Jyotisha of 1280 BC. See pages 11 and 12 for "datable Vedic events"
http://www.insa.nic.in/writereaddata/Up ... Lagdha.pdf

Feel free to dismiss it as mumbo jumbo.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Schmidt »

A flurry of articles now appearing on Tonys hit job

This one in today's Hindu :

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/t ... epage=true

The paper has made this article available to Tony Joseph and has published his response as well in the same page , a courtesy they would never extend to their ideological opponents

The bias is all too apparent
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Prem Kumar »

Fascinating, Shiv.

A thought arises: if Aryans indeed came from the Steppes, wouldn't they recall or document any of these astronomical observations "as seen from the Steppes"?

I am assuming the night sky looks different from there than from Punjab.

AIT'ians desperately clutch to straws by quoting names of "cold weather animals" like Beaver in the Rig Veda (a theory that Talageri comprehensively demolished by showing that all these animals are present in India too). By the same token, invading Aryans should retain some memory of the night-sky while composing Rig Veda, no?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Prem Kumar »

Schmidt: not surprising. Chindu did an ad-hominem piece on Rajiv Malhotra and did not even have the decency to publish his rebuttal. They claimed "editorial discretion". This is why we have to create "our own stage" like Swarajya, OpIndia, MyInd, IndiaFacts etc. Playing on "their stage" is a losing proposition
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by UlanBatori »

the combination turns out to be a unique one that can pinpoint the date of the observation anytime in the last 26,000 years
This (and its extended version) is what I have been afraid to ask Nileshji. But now that the Mullah Shivullah has given this fatwa let me pose it.

Looking at this from far away and with the vaunted ignorance of UBCNews, this is an Integral Equation. What is being said is that if one integrates some function over a range of the variables, one gets an answer on the right hand side. IOW,
Integral of {f(x,y,z,t)}[over the range of t from -26,000 to 0]dt = Y.

where it is argued that x,y,z are all functions of t as well, so this is basically
Integral of {g(t)}[over the range of t from -26,000 to 0]dt = Y.


The procedure available to us, is that we know Y and we are reasonably sure now of g(t) because we are reasonably sure of the dependence of x, y and z on t.

So if one solves this integral equation, one gets x,y,z at a given t, far back in the range of variables.

In our case, these functions are "more or less" periodic, that is, they take the same (or very similar) values at regular intervals of t. IOW, the trouble with all integral equations is that small errors in Y (or if experimental measurements thereof are used in lieu of exactly differentiable functions), the answers for X, Y and Z can be off by significant amounts. In our case, the trouble is that these are periodic: they take similar values at different values of t. The answer that says: "Mahabarata is copied from Odyssey in AD1623 onlee!" may also have been 1,732,874 BCE. Or 134,233,654 BCE. Or 2,387,865,237.

The alarming aspect here is that per shiv, "distant stars that do not move" are used for the reference for all these calculations. But nothing is stationary, since the Solar System is moving w.r.t. the Galactic Pakistan at the center of the Milky Way. And the Milky Way is like in one corner of the Local Cluster. Which is somewhere in the known Universe.

The "fixed" reference stars must have SOME motion, when one considers periods of 10,000 years etc. So, my question is how to get rid of the above uncertainty.

In the above, pls note that I did not really pass the Integral Equations course, though I did take it. The course had no tests and no assignments, only an Oral Final Exam (like Vedic Education) which suited me fine since I was studying for PhD Qualifying Exams that quarter, and had no hope of passing it. Fully expected to flunk out, so why waste time studying another course, onlee.

All studying (or horrified attempt thereto) was done on the bus coming back to Ulan Bator Monday Morning after Quals exam. I was feverishly flipping the pages in my notebook trying to decipher my sleepy Mohenjodaro Harvard Donkey-Posterior Hear-o-glipissicks when the bearded gent sitting next to me remarked in the best Scholarly tone:
"Oh, I see that u r reading Integral Equations. Clearly you are deeply interested in Mathematics?"
"Only in self-defense, sir. I have a final exam tomorrow morning."
(Glum silence). Turned out that he was a Math Professor, fortunately not at the same madarssa.
The Final Exam was, well, what u might expect. :eek: At the end the Brophejar says:
"Hmm! U didn't do as well as I expected you would do. What happened?"
(Considering that I had slept through every class and we had no exams, this was indeed ominous..)
"I wassss ssstudying for PhD Qualifying..."
OH! DID YOU PASS?
"yess...."
He jumped out of his chair came around and shook my hand.
CONGRATULATIONS!!! YOU HAVE AN A!!
I left with red-shifted stellar velocity b4 he thought better of it. In a microsecond he was going to realize that I had not a clue how to solve either Fredholm Type I or Volterra Type 3. Or anything else.


So there you have it. But I do know enough about making errors to know that the above problem might be significant, and should be addressed before some tubelight comes on at Harvard etc. Who knows? Fredholm and Volterra, the Caliphs of Integration Equations, might have taught there, for all I know.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Nilesh Oak »

Shiv ji

Good write up. I have made few comments, where pertinent.

Ancient Indians used the vernal equinox or the beginning of spring to mark the start of their new year. This is still followed in India today, and to get an idea of just how long this has been followed we need to look a little more closely at the calendar used in India from Vedic times to the modern day. The calendar used in India is called a “sidereal” calendar. The word sidereal means “compared to the stars” or “using the stars for comparison” The Indian calendar uses distant stars that appear to be fixed in one position as reference points to decide exactly when a year is completed. At the beginning of the year (on the first day of the spring, or vernal equinox), the position of the rising sun is noted in relation to a distant fixed star. The sun will be seen to deviate from this position every day until it returns exactly to this position after one year. That day would mark the beginning of the next year.
(1) Ancient Indians used multiple points for the beginning of calendars. Alternately stated, they had multiple calendars. They could be variously named as 'Varsha' (one that possibly began with the onset of Varsha - monsoon- Summer solstice), Samvatsar (possibly that began with equinoxes) and we also have evidence for year beginning with winter solstice. So, in short...some type of time keeping beginning with each of the cardinal points (2 equinoxes and 2 solstices).

(2) To note the Vernal equinox every year, there was no need for a reference of distant star. Knowledge and observation of the motion of Sun in the sky (North to south.. say along the rising or setting horizon) was sufficient.





The year is divided up into twelve months, but those twelve months are lunar months. Twelve lunar months add up only to 354 days, that is 11 days shorter than a year. Indian tradition follows the lunar months and ancient astronomers realized that this was too inaccurate to keep track of a year, so they kept track of years by following the equinoxes using the sidereal method described earlier. The difference of 11 days or so between the twelve solar months and twelve lunar months was corrected by adding an extra “leap-month” approximately once in three years. This created an acceptably accurate system of keeping the lunar and solar calendars connected and accurate.

In addition to measuring years and months, each day of the year has a star related identity based on the stars or minor constellations (also called asterisms) that can be seen in line with the point at which the moon rises. Asterisms are important in the Indian calendar because there are 27 asterisms visible in the night sky and each of these is associated with a single day of a lunar month. The Indian word for asterism is “nakshatra”. The moon is tracked based on which nakshatra/asterism is visible in line with the point at which the moon rises. Every day, as the month progresses the moon is seen to be associated with a different nakshatra, and at the end of a lunar month the moon is back at the first nakshatra/asterism. This method too has an ancient record and is known from the time of the Rig Veda.
The reference to Intercalation (Adhik masa) exists in Rigveda and many other texts.

Since daily and monthly count was kept via lunar tithi and month, Indian system developed many sophisticated layers of major and minor corrections , to be made periodically.

Over time, their context was lost and much hell broke loose!
However the sidereal system of keeping track of the year by correlating the position of the sun with a fixed star leads to a slight error in the date of the equinoxes and solstices.
Not correct. you may remove it.

The error or more accurately, gap between Luni notation for an event (e.g. vernal equinox occuring around Chaitra Full moon) and actual day of vernal equinox (based on position of the sun) occurred over time.. due to this shift of the background stars (in turn, as one of the visible consequence of 'circular motion of the earth axis - rotation of NCP - precession of equinoxes).

It is most convenient to do this approximately every 2,000 years or so when the beginning of the year can be marked by the adjacent Zodiac sign/constellation. What this means is that the Hindu calendar will show “steps” of about 2,000 years based on which Zodiac star sign the year began with.
While it makes sense to do it about every ~2000 years (~2160) if one uses 12 point Zodiac system, since Ancient Indians used 'nakshatra' that corresponds to about ~13 degree (instead of Zodiac of ~30 degree space), the timing of correction (when such references are found in ancient indian works) can be estimated with more precision (.e.g ~ 900-1000 years).
The naming of days, months, phases of the moon, equinoxes and solstices in relation to recognizable stars has a very interesting side effect. If a few critical details naming the month, moon phase and time of year (solstice or equinox) are found, the combination turns out to be a unique one that can pinpoint the date of the observation anytime in the last 26,000 years just as surely as one might say “26th November 2008”.
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Correct (but only as an explanation for a layman). The devil is in the details...namely---we better have few critical observations noted, which means, it is not ALWAYS possible to arrive at a unique date. However, in resolving many issues (e.g. AIT) or in falsifying a specific claim for the timing of ancient event (e.g. Ramayana or Mahabharata) not all details are required. Because few key astronomy observations (by luck, those that are tied to this long cycle of 26K) allow us to falsify specific claims.. e.g. any claim for Ramayana that falls after 10,000 BCE, or any claim for Mahabharata war that falls after 4508 BCE.. and so on.
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Ancient records in the Vedas and post Vedic texts show that the start of the year, or vernal equinox has been marked in the distant past by different stars than are used today. This gives us dates going back to 3,000 BC and even earlier in some references. The vernal equinox, which is in the Uttarabhadra nakshatra today, in Bharani in 1,280 BC at the time of the Vedanga Jyotish. There are Vedic textual references to the vernal equinox in Kritika nakshatra (2,250 BC), Mriga-shira nakshatra (4,000 BC) and Punar-vasu nakshatra in 6,000 BC. Other references in the Brahmana texts refer to a Magha nakshatra full moon on the day of the winter solstice, dating back to 3,000 BC.
Good intentions (respected Shir Vamdev Shastri), bad scholarship.

It is critical to recognize that likes of calendric works (Surya siddhanta, Vedanga Jyotisha and such) have been updated numerous times.. and that is how Surya Siddhanta (for example) that we have has 12 Zodiac system in it (possibly updated around 500 CE). What is missed by casual and careless readers of these works (assuming these scholars actually bothered to study it) is that there are references and measurements (astronomy) not corrected during updates (and for good reasons) that allow us to estimate timing of previous updates to Surya Siddhanta to certain time intervals such as ~3000 BCE, 5300 BCE, 7300-7800 BCE and so on.

Granted he (Shri Frawley) is quoting (not sure if he clearly mentions the original references to B G Tilak or not) works of B G Tilak, but that is already been shown to be wrong (BTW.. that does not take away genius of Lokamanya Tilak...as much as later falsification of numerous conjectures of Copernicus, Galileo or Newton.. does not take aware their ingenuity and boldness)

Problem with second generation crop of Indic scholars is that they did ok job in trying to move people away from 1500 BCE (AIT) and popularizing outcome due to works of BG Tilak or S B Dikshit (3000 BCE and Shatapatha)...but they did very little original research of their own. Worse, they did not do anything to critique the works of B G Tilak. If they had.. they would have made significant progress, with the help of modern astronomy knowledge.

As a result (David Frawley, Subhash Kak, N Rajaram...and many more), these individuals tried to pull Indic narrative out of 1500 AIT shit and landed us in another cesspool of ~3000 BCE.
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Objective research is without ends and for that very reason should be fashioned/designed in such a way that it can grow and be modified in the light of new evidence.

I hope you find the comments useful.

Warm regards,

Nilesh Oak
Nilesh Oak
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by Nilesh Oak »

UlanBatori wrote:


This (and its extended version) is what I have been afraid to ask Nileshji. But now that the Mullah Shivullah has given this fatwa let me pose it.
UB ji

My answer to your question in lay-terms is here:

If you are already familiar with implications of AV observation (or even otherwise) you may jump to 45 min in the lecture where Q&A begins.and listen until 50 min (about 5 min)

I answer why implication why AV observation can only be explained from 11091 BCE through 4508 BCE.. and never before or anytime after 4508 BCE leading to our time.

And while at it, you may also hear why limitations of linguistics, archaeology and (even) genetics are overcome by astronomy evidence in killing this thing called AIT

https://youtu.be/RedV48OCEFg
UlanBatori
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by UlanBatori »

Ah!
various 'Yugas' of mankind, which itself is older than species homo sapiens.
Now we get to another of these assumptions.

Why do you assume that the knowledge in the Vedas (note: not the version we can read and hear today) is bounded in time by the appearance of homo sapiens?
Unless of course it is the "belief" that
The Lawd Gawd Made Man in His Own Image
and took a rib out of Adam and made Eve
Note that Avataras 1-4 are not Homo Sapien. #4 was getting there, but only halfway.

Can't comment on Aryabhatta geocentric etc, but I do know (and yes there are plenty of authoritative references on and off the Internet) that Malloostani Vedic astral navigation, when stolen by the Oiropeans via the Ayrabs, was what opened the door to open-ocean navigation. Other than minor sign errors, even Chris Columbo got it generally right for LATITUDE using such navigtion, so the astral location processes must have been extremely accurate.

So this also explains why the Sarasvati civilization, which could only have been the western extreme of the vast eastern and southern hinterland thereof, had regular maritime trade with pretty far distant countries. And how Indonesia (a set of islands even pre-historic) came to have extensive contacts with India.

If anything, the 5000 year model seems full of huge holes.
Only a history that shows a continuum from pre-human species down to today's Pakis can have any hope of being even slightly right.

As for agriculture, that is another bogus claim IMO. Agriculture naturally thrives where there are seasonal rains as well as year-round greenery and above-freezing weather. And liveable temperatures without needing auxiliary shelters. And hence, people residing year-round. Thus I have a problem with the following as Cradles of Civilization:
1. Antarctica
2. Greenland
3. Sahara Desert.
4. Rajasthan desert except for fertile river valleys pre-tectonic river shift.
5. Himalayas above treeline (i.e., Northern Arunachal, Xinjiang, Mongolia)
6. Siberia.
peter
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth: Part 2

Post by peter »

SriJoy wrote:......

It must be noted too that ancient Indians were wrong about stellar observations in one critical way: they did not have a heliocentric world. Aryabhatiya clearly shows a geocentric model with epicycles as their concept of stellar motion.
What have you been reading or rather not reading? Before Aryabhat there were many observers ......

दवादशारं नहि तज्जराय वर्वर्ति चक्रं परि दयां रतस्य | RV 1.164.21
आ पुत्रा अग्ने मिथुनासो अत्र सप्त शतानि विंशतिश्च तस्थुः ||
Formed with twelve spokes, by length of time, unweakened, rolls round the heaven this wheel of during Order.
Herein established, joined in pairs together, seven hundred Sons and twenty stand, O Agni.

पञ्चारे चक्रे परिवर्तमाने तस्मिन्ना तस्थुर्भुवनानि विश्वा | RV 1.164.25
तस्य नाक्षस्तप्यते भूरिभारः सनादेव न शीर्यते सनाभिः ||

Upon this five-spoked wheel revolving ever all living creatures rest and are dependent. Its axle, heavy-laden, is not heated: the nave from ancient time remains unbroken.

सनेमि चक्रमजरं वि वाव्र्त उत्तानायां दश युक्ता वहन्ति |RV 1.164.27
सूर्यस्य चक्षू रजसैत्याव्र्तं तस्मिन्नार्पिता भुवनानि विश्वा ||

The wheel revolves, unwasting, with its felly: ten draw it, yoked to the far-stretching car-pole. The Sun's eye moves encompassed by the region: on him dependent rest all living creatures.
Last edited by peter on 29 Jun 2017 20:48, edited 1 time in total.
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