If Sanskrit, like European origin languages, has inherited a large percentage from non IE languages - what languages has Sanskrit inherited from? Dravidian languages? But every linguist tells us that Sanskrit has taken very little by way of vocabulary from Dravidian languages. Has Sanskrit taken much from Sinic languages like Chinese? No. What about Arabic? No. How about non IE Sanskrit roots from Phoenician or Red Indian languages? No. I think there is a far eastern "Austronesian" group? Does Sanskrit have anything in common with that? No. It seems to me that 95+ % of Sanskrit is of Indic origin.
Shiv garu, from wiki (to me this is AIT proponents take on Non-IE influence on Sanskrit, even though Dravidian influence is noted, it appears they are leaning more on Munda and Proto-burushaski:
Vedic Sanskrit has a number of linguistic features which are alien to most other Indo-European languages. Prominent examples include: phonologically, the introduction of retroflexes, which alternate with dentals; morphologically, the formation of gerunds; and syntactically, the use of a quotative marker ("iti"). Such features, as well as the presence of non-Indo-European vocabulary, are attributed to a local substratum of languages encountered by Indo-Aryan peoples in Central Asia and within the Indian subcontinent.
A substantial body of loanwords has been identified in the earliest Indian texts. Non-Indo-Aryan elements (such as -s- following -u- in Rigvedic busa) are clearly in evidence. While some loanwords are from Dravidian, and other forms are traceable to Munda or Proto-Burushaski, the bulk have no sensible basis in any of these families, indicating a source in one or more lost languages. The discovery that some loan words from one of these lost sources had also been preserved in the earliest Iranian texts, and also in Tocharian convinced Michael Witzel and Alexander Lubotsky that the source lay in Central Asia and could be associated with the Bactria–Margiana
But the above seems to have inconsistencies, hence the CA language influence on Vedic Sanskrit is questioned:
Colin Masica could not find etymologies from Indo-European or Dravidian or Munda or as loans from Persian for 31 percent of agricultural and flora terms of Hindi. He proposed an origin in unknown Language "X". Southworth also notes that the flora terms did not come from either Dravidian or Munda. Southworth found only five terms which are shared with Munda, leading to his suggestion that "the presence of other ethnic groups, speaking other languages, must be assumed for the period in question".
Lubotsky pointed out that the phonological and morphological similarity of 55 loanwords in Proto-Indo-Iranian and in Sanskrit indicates that a substratum of Indo-Iranian and a substratum of Indo-Aryan represent the same language, or perhaps two dialects of the same language.
On the other hand the archaeological affiliation of BMAC to indo-iranian culture is seriously dubious as archaeologists like B.B. Lal have shown the culture of BMAC to be an unique one with no such relation with the assumed indo-iranian cultures.
Seems to me that the firm grip of CA origin of PIE makes them not research what percentage of Dravidian/Munda/Prakrit's influence is on Sanskrit, it will be great if we can investigate that as that information will hard to come by.
http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Substrat ... #section_3