I don't see the logical reasoning behind God being present within urine, excreta, a bag of chips, a monitor, a pen, a car or a human being.
God certainly created urine & excreta, but He is not
present in it. Does a shoe become part of a shoemaker, after it has been built? The shoe did originate from the shoemaker, but the shoemaker does not live within the shoe.
Please pay careful attention to the following logic.
It may, or may not contradict your faith, but it certainly would clarify the air.
Any act of "creation" requires a MATERIAL cause, and an INSTRUMENTAL/EFFICIENT cause.
A shoemaker is NOT in the shoe he makes, because he didn't make the shoe from his own skin.
He used leather which is a distinct MATERIAL cause, correct ?
Now, you ( and your scripture ) claims "God" created this universe. ( ie "God" was the INSTRUMENTAL cause )
But what about the MATERIAL cause ?
In other words, there was NOTHING other than "God" until the universe was created.
So, WHAT did "God" make the universe WITH ?
You have two possibilities :
1) "God" created it OUT OF itself
2) "God" created it OUT OF NON-EXISTENCE
choice automatically means "God" has BECOME whatever was "created", and so logically IN them.
choice is a logical disaster for your position.
For any object to come into
existence involves a change of state
of that object.
Any change of state logically requires the existence
of a PRIOR state.
Since "God" created it out of NON-EXISTENCE, that would mean Non-Existence existed.
This is a clear case of Reductio Ad Absurdum.
So, that position is UNTENABLE.
So, "God" cannot have created anything UNLESS it was OUT OF ITSELF.
And, if that is so, the contention from you and your scripture is illogical from the inception.
If God was present within everything, then God should be present within man as well
This is the precise reason why you believe Jesus is "Son" of "God" and "God made Flesh" at the same time, simply because the "Holy Spirit" descended upon Mary.
BTW, although I don't want to enter into a scriptural argument with you on this, there are UMPTEEN examples of Holy Spirit descending on a whole lot of people other than Mary, and more than one claim of "begotten Son of God" in the KJV Bible you so ardently believe in.
and then it is no wonder that why man in his depravity claims no responsibility for his actions, because God must be present within everything and thus God is the one who is at fault now!
Very good questions.
Obviously, this merits a proper response.
When you dream, what are the characters in your dream made of ? Some neurochemical within you, correct ?
When one of the dream characters murders another in your dream, who is responsible ?
Is it you ?
Now you are entitled to believe â€“ and you have clearly stated so â€“ that the scripture does not provide sufficient proof that the Judeo-Christian "God" does not breathe. Then in your logical world, it surely must be
I asked for proof of the Judeo-Christian "God" breathing before creating "air".
Well, logical consistency demands that you respond with an appropriate quote which states that "God" was "breathing" without Space-Time prior to creation.
If not, the logical reposte stands vindicated.
That is where faith comes in. You, however, want to apply logic to it. However faith & logic don't go together. Can we logically explain how much & why we love our parents? Our children? Our spouse? Not everything can be explained logically, especially God.
Unfortunately for you, there are
logical explanations for WHY we love our parents, children, spouse, and how much.
A lot of psychological ( and sometimes cruel physiological ) research has been done on this matter.
The problem with the Judeo-Christian concept of "God" is that it is posited as "truth", but when challenged logically the believers hide behind "faith".
If it is "truth", it should not be contradicted at any time/place.
Or is your "truth" relative ?