KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:Well too many "status quo" positions have really been swept away by new dominating positions. Till now it was also the "status quo" position that Sanskrit had its origins in India, and the whole Sanskrit-based and Sanskrit-derived civilization was native to the Indian Subcontinent, albeit had spread over a larger area. And despite this "status-quo", we still have AIT being taught in our schools and we are needing this thread to discuss this.
I am not disagreeing with the need for uprooting and throwing out the AIT. But I am not interested in having it replaced by an OIT which will then show up in textbooks with summaries such as that provided by Elst in his review. It is simply not supported by the data.
I think you need to get your terminology right!
Out-of-India Theory states, that instead of Indo-European Languages spreading from somewhere outside India into India, India was the source of Indo-European languages. There is however a only a wafer-thin claim of people moving out of India and migrating elsewhere. Mostly it is speculation at the moment without much evidence compiled through textual or archaeological means. Most of the evidence that comes in support, comes from genetics. But each side interprets the data to suit their claims. So nothing definite there either.
OIT actually is a thin shell around the major contention - Indigenism. Indo-European languages in the form of Sanskrit, people who spoke those languages, the revelation of Vedas, Vedic deities, are all indigenous to the Indian Subcontinent.
Major part of Shri Shrikant Talageri's work is to find testimony in the Rigveda and the Avesta for the
indigenism of the Vedic culture. His OIT contribution is chiefly in providing a history of Iranians splitting from the Indic mainstream, and moving out-of-India into Afghanistan and the Iranian plateau.
The point is that neither Indigenism nor OIT are based on Talageri's work. So if you wish to diss Talageri's work, do so, but don't take recourse to using the term Indigenism or OIT as the theory you seem to be fighting against. There is absolutely nothing wrong with Indigenism and OIT replacing AIT in school curriculum. Your only issue is that Indigenism and OIT not take recourse to claims based on Rigveda.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:There are many people who would see the rishis as composers, because either they will see the Vedas of being of human agency, even a brilliant and insightful human agency, or they will be forced into that position, because of lack of clarifications coming forth from those pleading the position of "non-human" agency.
You are still too far behind this discussion. I will stop posting in your thread if this "pleading a position of non-human agency" balderdash continues. Sorry to appear rude about this.
I already wrote a reply to Arjun. Please read it. All that is being said is that "the data do not support an interpretation of rishis being composers". Are you deliberately looking past this simple point - or are you, Arjun, and Nilesh Oak still going to keep on posting the same allegations ?
Lower down you yourself say that the "original" rishis in the Veda, i.e. Vashishta, Vishvamitra, Agastya, Kashyapa etc., who are in the RV itself, are
not human beings.
Anyway I looked up your response to Arjun ji. You wrote:
KLP Dubey wrote:Nobody needs to even accept "eternal Veda" or "no history in the Veda" principles, even though ultimately they have proven to be reliable time and again.
For this discussion, I have highlighted very clearly the practical, non-metaphysical fact ... based solely upon consistent comparison of references to the same entity (e.g, rishis, rivers, chariots etc) in the RV text itself..... that there is no way to gain trustworthy information on historical matters from the RV.
I think we have
gone once into your arguments about Sindhu and 'sindhavaḥ'.
I think one should not underestimate man's ability to do textual analysis using the tools of abstraction and poetic license to explain any inconsistencies in the semantic of the references. Also people can pose different requirements on the level of consistency required from texts. You may want to be more strict, whereas others may not.
Those, who consider Rigveda to be compositions, would simply consider lack of ontological resolution of some phoneme as simply the normal difficulty two cultures may have in understanding each other which are so distanced from each other through the gulf of time.
So I think it is really a losing prospect to try to tell people that the references in Rig Veda do not show consistency in interpretation.
The "non-human agency" is in fact a better platform to argue from than one based on inconsistency in meaning.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:However as far as I am concerned, I am willing to formulate this differently. I don't wish to clamor for the position that the rishis be considered composers. It is true that Shri Shrikant Talageri does, but that position need not be mine.
If that is so, good for you. I am not pleading any case, only providing useful information.
And your information has indeed been enlightening.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:Was it people inhabiting the Indian Subcontinent or were these some Central Asians? In other words, to whom was it revealed?
From the information available, only the Indians have preserved the Veda. Nobody else. Hence one can assert with confidence that Indians received it. Furthermore, later literature of the Indians shows no evidence that they carried the RV from elsewhere. So it is a confident/quite reasonable claim that this connection with the Veda arose "in India".
A zero memory of migration from elsewhere is India's best suit of armor against AIT.
KLP Dubey wrote:Please note, you are violating some basic rules of the game here. Such questions about the past rarely have a 100% clear affirmative answer (although negative answers can be crystal clear). We are not talking about science here.
RajeshA wrote:b) When was the "liquid", the knowledge of Veda, transferred into the bowl labeled "human society"?
The "lower limit" on that event can only be determined by references to *other* works. For example, if Oak successfully revises the data of the Mahabharata to 5500 BCE, it is clear the Veda was received before that. That is the problem with "pre-history": in the absence of a professional cadre of historians whose job is to make accurate and cross-checked records (like we do now), the only way is to infer from other sources.
That is also why it is important for the OIT to pursue reliable chronology *independent* of the RV. If the RV gets drawn into the whole debate, then we will be at an impasse and an unending quarrel with AIT/AMTers.
A chronology *dependent* on RV is used only to refute those claims of AIT-Nazis, which are themselves based on RV. It is important to understand the implicit disclaimer in the beginning of such a refutation, namely, "If one were to read Rigveda as a Sanskrit text which purports historical and geographical data in it, then ...."
However here you are relying too much on the device of written/continuous oral testimony as a precondition of writing history.
Especially in the West, all sort of history has been "reconstructed" based on archaeology, philology, linguistics, and a host of other analytic specialties. Some history writing has been based on a few dubious hints. So attested history is not the only type of history. "Reconstructed" history is also given the honor of being history.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:c) From which other bowl, simply termed as "unknown" bowl, was the "liquid" transferred to the bowl labeled "human society"?
In other words how and from where was it revealed? I think you have premised that this "unknown" bowl is from a non-human agency. This "non-human agency" may in fact itself not be the originator of the knowledge/sounds of the Vedas, but may also simply be another transmission channel. I can live with this, though it throws up many more questions on "how".
You are now asking the sort of questions that are impossible for anyone to answer. Let me ask you: how, when, and where did the first human transcend the stage of "animal grunts and growls" and speak a sentence? Was there "help" ? Do you know? Does anyone know?
And still this lack of testimony has not stopped people, especially in the West, from pursuing their search for their roots, the history of evolution.
This unbending search has been going on using a variety of different tools and theories, like that of evolution, out-of-Africa migration, etc. These theories have then in time displaced earlier theories like Biblical creationism, etc.
What I notice is the argument:
Since there is no testimony from that time, we cannot say anything historical about it.
History would then simply have to be reconstructed on the principle of best guess. Or at least a reasonable theory would have to be suggested.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:There are those who say Sanskrit developed as a language and then Rigveda was composed in it. There are those like yourself who say, that Sanskrit was derived from the sounds of the Rigveda. I am willing to go with the latter position, if this position is willing to accept
1) that on earth for the first time, the proper nouns in the Rigveda, which today denote rivers, flora, fauna, personalities, places, etc. were assigned to such within the geography of India.
I have been saying this all along, that at various points of time people in India were assigning various meanings to the RV words. The "history" then only becomes a question of when those assignments were made, but
the problem is that to use such information practically, one needs an independent testimony of the context, date, etc of such associations. Such is the problem with pre-history (or non-history). We have to live with it, not try to artificially "get around it" in a dishonest manner just for the sake of keeping an argument/discussion going.
May be it is the case that a new paradigm has been established in the world, where people have wanted to search all possible clues to get a better representation of their history. It may have started in the West. I don't know, but that is the reigning paradigm now. History needs to be modeled as far as one can based on data and evidence. As the testimony for European civilizations is skimpy, they have gone on a search through the stones, bones, shards, runes and genes to gather more data, and reconstruct history based on that. In any case the Western historians have furnished some narrative, as far as possible. History always has an implicit disclaimer: "To the best of one's knowledge".
So the concept of keeping one's search and speculation in check is really a paradigm which is dead today. Moreover since some have used it to stake their claims on land and cultural achievements, one cannot shut it off now.
Now nobody is demanding that an exact account be given of the past - the "revelation" of the Vedas to human society. What is however needed is a general narrative.
There are only two ways of proceeding:
a) Those who claim Sanskrit came first and then the composition of Rigveda, have it easy. They can build their case based on linguistics and history allegedly contained in the Rigveda, and consider the rishis of the Anukramanis as the composers. They thus have a full narrative. AIT-Nazis provide one such narrative. Shri Shrikant Talageri has provided another account. This school can both make a solid case of how both Sanskrit and Rigveda came about. The inconsistency in semantics of some words is to be considered a mere non-issue, and can be satisfactorily explained or explained away.
b) Those who claim that Rigveda came first, and then Sanskrit was developed from it, and the proper Nouns given some assignments, have the difficult task of reconstructing how the rishis or Sanskrit-developers went about developing Sanskrit from Rigveda and retrofitting the proper nouns. In fact, here scholars of this school would have to develop a full narrative of how this retrofitting must have occurred. Since testimony is not available so some means and system of deduction would have to be developed. This I presume has not even been attempted as yet. Without this analysis, any claim that Sanskrit was derived from Rigveda remains simply a claim, without much in terms of such a derivation forthcoming. It thus remains simply an assertion without much evidence. The argument of semantic inconsistency in the Sanskrit reading of the Rigveda is very tenuous, and can at best be considered as an argument to deconstruct the narrative of the other side, but does nothing to bolster the claims of this side.
So much needs to be done here!
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:2) that the seers named in the Anukramanis are accepted as those who are considered as the ones personally holding the bowl labeled "human society". Or if they are not to be accepted, other names be proposed.
Dude, I have already told you the answer. You are not reading. The "original" rishis in the Veda are Vashishta, Vishvamitra, Agastya, Kashyapa etc. It is in the RV itself. The problem is that they are
not human beings, as is also clear from the same RV using the same consistent reading of the Rks.
I do not want to be facing such a problem, but I must. It is what the data says. And I am not the first. Generations of Vedic upholders would swear it on their mothers. The AITers and OITers are just ignoring this problem, and saying "Nah. It can't be. I am just going to assume they were human."
You don't seem to realize how silly this whole thing is. Why not just spend a year reading the RV in the original, you will realize it yourself. You will see how flimsy, outrageous, and pitifully scarce are the "data" used by these people to find history in the Veda.
Here is Dude responding!
I looked up
your post in response to Talageri.
All you say is that these "original" rishis were "not human beings". You don't say what they were. You don't even speculate on what they could be! That is fine.
You speak of families of "maintainers", who were humans. But you don't say how they received either the sounds of the Rigveda or by whom were they asked to do the maintaining of the sounds. That is fine.
In the end your strategy is to not build any evidence in favor of your theory, possibly so that it does not become falsifiable, and thus simply plead - it is not known, there is no testimony. I don't object to this. It may be a sound strategy.
But what I object to is that no theory is provided to show the development of Sanskrit based on Rigveda, thus leaving the field open to those who would say, that Sanskrit came first and only then Rigveda. After all, every rationally thinking human would say, first comes the development of language and after that comes literature, and thus claim Rigveda to be literature.
KLP Dubey wrote:The "3000 years at least" part needs to be worked on as Buddha's date itself need to be revised to 1887-1807 BCE.
For example, if the names of the rivers are to be found in Rigveda, than those sounds were associated with those rivers considering their east-west position and many other criteria in which those sounds again come up in the sounds-base of the Rigveda.
Perfectly reasonable, if you look in ONE PLACE in the RV. You are exactly mimicking here the delusions of AIT/OIT folks. Problem is, if you now carry over the "knowledge" you have gained there to another location in the RV, your knowledge fails. So now what do you do ? Will you now switch to the second location and try to interpret that, or just ignore it, or what ? That is the problem.
Let me be straightforward. I am "OIT folks". Everybody on this thread, except for a few are "OIT folks"!
As I said, this is a problem I am not yet aware of in its full expanse. You brought up the case of Sindhu, and I responded to that. There is also the case of homonyms and polysemes.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:The considerations of the human agents in assigning the proper noun sounds to various objects in history and geography of India can however be gleaned from the Sanskritic reading of the Rigveda, and thus historical and geographical statements can be made based on Rigveda.
Wrong. Now we are back to what we discussed in pages 99 and 100 of this thread. For such a thing to work, you need an
independent testimony of the context, time, person etc who made the association.
Believe me, this is a basic requirement. For example, you may claim that someone associated 'Sarasvati' with a river, but for that to be useful in determining history, where is the testimony regarding the time and place and context of association?
Sorry this is nonsense!
"Independent testimony" and all that may the sole building blocks in Mimamsa, but other than witness testimony and other forms of direct evidence, there is also something called circumstantial evidence.
What we have are various sounds/words in Rigveda and the same sounds used for real rivers as attested to by other texts and even current tradition and use. Similarly we notice many many sounds/words in Rigveda being used for flora, fauna, places, etc. This is simply reality. True, one cannot perhaps reconstruct history exactly regarding name, time, place, context, etc of sound-object association. But I notice a certain disinterest and even resistance in undertaking this research.
If you do not have anything worth offering the curious people as to how Sanskrit was developed, then basically the only theory remaining credible is that Sanskrit came first and then came Rigveda.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:You have yourself claimed that sometimes meanings as interpreted from the Sanskrit reading of the Rigveda seem unclear and nonsense. This itself may be shows to be a consequence of the historical fitting of objects in the real world with the sounds of Rigveda not being perfect, but that too avers to the process of historical retrofitting objects to sounds, and thus history itself.
Yes you are correct so far, but yo
u fail to close the loop. Indeed, there was a moment of history in that act of "fitting"; but to GET AT THAT and to use that possibility in a historical sense, a second independent testimony of the act is needed. Otherwise you are stuck. Such is the tyranny of the past, my friend!
Such is actually the tyranny of those who think they can throw any theory at others, start calling others frauds and quacks, and try to assert authority but do not want to do their homework.
The others have both rationality and much research to show for. You come with nothing and expect others to gulp it down. Answers like "we don't know. they left us nothing" etc. are not going to satisfy anybody.
I too can make a fancy theory like all humans were earlier 10 meters tall with bones made up of silicon. Unfortunately they did not leave any written testimony so we have to live without it. Who will believe me?
What I am trying to say is that one then uses circumstantial evidence. One looks for more data. One can do textual analysis of Rigveda and try to reconstruct the process of how the Sanskrit developers came to assign certain sounds with certain objects. One can try to do use non-proper nouns to see if they used such analysis. However you do it, build some case, build some narrative!
Disclaimer: I don't mean you personally.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:What is needed is a much more thorough explanation of the interface between Rigvedic sounds and the real human (Indian) society. This does not seem to be forthcoming.
You cannot keep asking for things beyond a reasonable limit. If one could give all details of exactly how, when, and where Rgvedic sounds interfaced with humans, then why on earth would we be discussing things like AIT and OIT ? It would all become redundant.
Enlightenment does demand a level of deeper reflection and thinking. This is why I stressed the high-level framework for such things. There has been too much of "digging into details" without determining a reliable high-level framework to guide that digging. People are seeing trees but not the forest.
What I see is that the other side has both forest and trees to offer, whereas your side has only verbal abuse to offer, on the lines of "frauds", "quacks", etc. and that too even though nobody is out there hurling such abuse on your school of thinking, where you need to retaliate.
Oh, I think I can ask very much that the the Rigveda-Sanskrit interface as well as the association between Rigvedic proper nouns and real objects and ideas be better explained by your school of thinking!
When I feel like chanting the Rigveda, which I am sorry to say to my regret, I can't really right now, then I will go ahead and do the chanting and leave this discussion in this thread. I'll go and chant without any doubts troubling me.
But this is here the OIT Thread, and I don't particularly like a pro-Indic school of thinking, as represented by you, trying to tear down another pro-Indic school of thinking, represented by Shrikant Talageri, without replacing Shrikant Talageri's AIT-backbreaking analytic work, with an equal amount of theoretically work establishing Rigveda-Sanskrit and Rigveda-Proper-Noun-Reality Associations on a much firmer scholarly footing.
All the work done viz-a-viz Buddhism, Nyaya, etc. may not really be relevant here.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:Also you seem to be hung up on the notion that OIT proponents wish to call the rishis the composers of the Vedas, and the latter a composition undertaken in India. That is one view, but one can define the relationship of rishis to the Vedas as and anyway we want, as long as we can claim the rishis, whose tradition of preservation that is currently being kept alive, to be Indians, and the ones who developed Sanskrit from the sounds of Rigveda to also be Indians having done it in the Indian Subcontinent.
What I can certainly accept - and I have said it myself without any assistance from you - is that
it is indeed the Indians who distilled the Sanskrit language from the RV sounds. There is no doubt about that. It obviously could not have been anyone else.
Well the whole Indigenism is self-evident to us. And still our schools teach us something totally different.
The question is where did these "Aryan Indians" come from? Were they in Indian Subcontinent when they distilled the Sanskrit language from the RV sounds, or were they outside, say in the Pontic Steppes and made their way southwards later on.
Where is the evidence to all this? How does one know where they heard the first sounds? So many people wander around! If the maintainers of these sounds spread throughout India, they may have also spread into India beforehand?
What I see is that Shrikant Talageri tells me, no this is not possible, and he makes a complete solid case out of it. You don't.
KLP Dubey wrote:RajeshA wrote:But the question of RV rishis is something else altogether. In that concern, you are telling me I should just swallow all manner of things that directly contradict basic requirements.
When I myself can read the RV and see clearly the fact that the rishis cannot be thought to be human beings (and I shared several glimpses of that fact in my previous post), why should I agree to the tyrannical claims of motivated people who assume with great conviction that they MUST be human (and then proceed to make a hash of interpreting the Veda)?
Some fellow tells me that Anukramani names are of real vedic rishis carried through the vedic age faithfully in oral form along with the Suktas. Yet there is no explanation as to why the Vedic accents on their names are missing. Otherwise, neither I, nor anybody else, can believe they are vedic words instead of later conceptions made to look like vedic names. Note the reverse is not true: not every currently accented text is Vedic since people have added accents to even classical Sanskrit texts. But it just impossible to believe that for something which purportedly was carried through with high fidelity along with the RV Suktas, the accent inexplicably went missing!
The case of accents seem to be something quite minor.
The question is there any prohibition on anything that is said outside the Rigveda but accompanying it to keep the Rigvedic accents? Does the Rigvedic Pratisakhya apply only to Rigveda or does it apply to everything said accompanying Rigveda also? If it doesn't than the sounds would have changed with time. This is especially the case as the Gotras and Parivars which also carry these names are for all maintainers contemporary words, words perhaps applying to the gotra and parivar of the chanter itself. So if the Pratisakhya was not applicable to the associated rishi names, then the rishi names would have sounded like the way they were used in society outside the religious realm.
_________
In the end I would like to say is that I don't mind whether I go with Talageri's views on historicity of Rigveda or with your view on of Rigveda. For me, the only thing important with respect to the AIT/OIT issue is a
complete and consistent narrative based on any evidence possible.
So before finishing off other OIT Theories, your school of thinking needs to build up your own unassailable narrative. The we-don't-know-argument means only that the other person is right!
Disclaimer: If the language above sounded hard, I apologize.