Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

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RajeshA
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Animal Genetics approved May 12, 2012

Autosomal genetic diversity in non-breed horses from eastern Eurasia provides insights into historical population movements [Download]
Authors: Vera Warmuth¹, Andrea Manica¹, Anders Eriksson¹, Graeme Barker², Mim Bower²

¹ Department of Zoology, University of Cambridge, Downing Street, Cambridge, CB2 3EJ, UK.
² McDonald Institute for Archaeological Research, University of Cambridge, Downing Street, Cambridge, CB2 3EJ, UK.

Abstract
Many events in the history of eastern Eurasia, including the process of domestication itself, the initial spread of domestic horses and subsequent movements, are believed to have affected the genetic structure of domestic horse populations in this area. We investigated levels of within- and between-population genetic diversity in ‘non-breed horses’ (working horses sampled in remote areas) from 17 locations in Asia and parts of Eastern Europe, using 26 autosomal microsatellite loci. Non-breed horses have not been subject to the same intensity of artificial selection and closed breeding as have most breed animals and are thus expected to better reflect the population history of domestic horses. Despite geographic distances of between 300 and 7000 km between sampling locations, pairwise FST was very low (range: <0.001 to −0.033), suggesting historically high levels of gene flow. Our analyses of non-breed horses revealed a pattern of isolation by distance and a significant decline in genetic diversity (expected heterozygosity and allelic richness) from east to west, consistent with a westward expansion of horses out of East Asia. Although the timing of this putative expansion is unclear, our results highlight the benefit of studying animals that do not belong to particular breeds when investigating aspects of a population's history.
There was no significant correlation between genetic diversity and latitude, despite written accounts documenting a continued flux of horses from the steppe lands in the north into both India and much of China (Gommans 1994).

One explanation for the absence of a correlation between genetic diversity and latitude may lie in the fact that the bulk of horses in China originated from the steppes of central and east Asia (present-day Mongolia, Kyrgyzstan, south-east Kazakhstan and north-east China; Deng 1997), whereas horses in India predominantly originated from west and south-west Asia (present-day Kalmykia, southern Kazakhstan or the Middle East; Gommans 1994).
The paper from Gommans "The horse trade in eighteenth-century South Asia" is not online. It is supposed to be in the Journal of the Economic and Social History of the Orient.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Image

People. Take a close look at the image above.

It indicates the spread of R1A1a1 (M17). This is thought to have originated in India. Why not Europe? because the European populations (in Green) with M17 also have M 458 which is absent in India. The Underhill paper says:
http://www.nature.com/ejhg/journal/v18/ ... 9194a.html
Although the R1a1a* frequency and diversity is highest among Indo-Aryan and Dravidian speakers, the subhaplogroup R1a1a7-M458 frequency peaks among Slavic and Finno-Ugric peoples.
If you look at the European countries that are have high concentrations of the "Indian" M17 you find the Uralic language speakers, Lithuania and Slovenia.

Lithuania and Slovenia are Indo European speaking but are very close to Sanskrit
1. Sanskrit and Slavic affilities
http://www.korenine.si/zborniki/zbornik ... j_indo.pdf
To compare Vedic Sanskrit with Slovenian, the
vocabulary of Macdonell's A Vedic Reader for Students was used. All entries were compared, except
names and derivatives for a total of 1612. Out of 1612, some 330 were similar to Slovenian in sound
and meaning. This is 20.5%.
<snip>
Kivisild et al. (1999) in their analyses of Indian and western-Eurasian mtDNA lineages (Czechs,
Slovaks and Russians included), found an extensive deep late Pleistocene (51,000-67,000 BP) link
between contemporary Europeans and Indians provided by the mtDNA haplogroup U. This probably
predates their spread to Europe. Only a small fraction of the 'Caucasoid-specific' mtDNA lineages
found in Indian populations can be ascribed to a relatively recent admixture, which they date at
9,300+- 3,000 BP and also conclude that this does not support a recent massive Indo-Aryan invasion,
at least as far as far as maternally inherited genetic-lineages are concerned.
There is no shared word for metal so the links are probably before the bronze age - ie more than 5500 years ago

2. Lithuanian:
http://vilnews.com/?p=4425
Since the 19th century, when the similarity between Lithuanian and Sanskrit was discovered, Lithuanians have taken a particular pride in their mother tongue as the oldest living Indo-European language. To this day, to some Lithuanians their understanding of their nationality is based on their linguistic identity. It is no surprise then that they proudly quote the French linguist Antoine Meillet, who said, that anyone who wanted to hear old Indo-European should go and listen to a Lithuanian farmer. The 19th century maxim - the older the language the better - is still alive in Lithuania.
About the Uralic Languages, we have discussed them before. No one is sure where Uralic languages fit in.

Here is Wiki
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uralic_languages
The Uralic languages play /jʊərˈrælɨk/ (sometimes called Uralian /jʊˈreɪliən/ languages) constitute a language family of some three dozen[1] languages spoken by approximately 25 million people. The healthiest Uralic languages in terms of the number of native speakers are Hungarian, Finnish, Estonian, Mari and Udmurt. Countries that are home to a significant number of speakers of Uralic languages include Austria, Croatia, Estonia, Finland, Hungary, Norway, Romania, Russia, Serbia, Slovakia, Slovenia, Sweden and Ukraine
I have already mentioned on this thread that Uralic languages have some features like Dravidian, but here are the theories about Uralic languages:
Indo Uralic
The Indo-Uralic (or Uralo-Indo-European) hypothesis suggests that Uralic and Indo-European are related at a fairly close level or, in its stronger form, that they are more closely related than either is to any other language family. It is viewed as certain by a few linguists and as possible by a larger number.
<snip>
Uralo-Dravidian
The hypothesis that the Dravidian languages display similarities with the Uralic language group, suggesting a prolonged period of contact in the past,[17] is popular amongst Dravidian linguists and has been supported by a number of scholars, including Robert Caldwell,[18] Thomas Burrow,[19] Kamil Zvelebil,[20] and Mikhail Andronov.[21] This hypothesis has, however, been rejected by some specialists in Uralic languages,[22] and has in recent times also been criticised by other Dravidian linguists such as Bhadriraju Krishnamurti

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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Click on image to see a larger version
Image

The image above shows the maximum glaciation (permanent ice) in Europe about 18,000 years ago. the ices started melting about 13,000 to 10,000 years ago.

If you look carefully all the areas that have the gene marker M17 (from India) were under ice up to about 13,000 years ago. Flooding started after that. Of course even the Himalayas would have been impassably blocked by ice I guess.

But India was free and peopled. It i likely that they started migrating North after the last ice age and started filling up the lands that are now Slavic and Uralic speaking. The genes prove the connection. The language hints at such a connection.

below is an image of ice age glaciation. You can see how the route from India to Africa was free from permafrost.
Image
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Some ancient Slovenian myths
http://www.thezaurus.com/?/webzine/perc ... landscape/
Indija Koromandija is a sort of ‘a land below’ where there is eternal spring and autumn.
Indija Koromandija is also a magic land of plenty, which every year gives two or three crops, and where there is no knowledge of sin or sinners.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Lithuanian gods with an India connection
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Lithuanian_gods
  • Dievas, the Chief God (whose name was possibly cognate with the Hindu Dyaus, Germanic Tiwaz and Greek Zeus).
  • Aušrinė, the Morning Star, a goddess, a daughter of the God ("dievaitė"). She was the goddess of the morning. Aušrinė has many similarities with Vedic Ushas, the Greek goddess Eos, and the Roman goddess Aurora. Alternatively her name is given as Aušra ("dawn").
  • Laima, goddess of Fate and Luck (Laxmi in Hinduism)
  • Perkūnas, the Thunder, a son of God ("dievaitis") (Parjanya in Hinduism). (Also Perun in Slovenia)
  • Saulė, the Sun (Surya in Hinduism).
  • Vakarinė or Vakarė (the evening Venus, who makes the bed for Saulė, the sun), Indraja (Jupiter; Indra in Hinduism), Sėlija (Saturn), Žiezdrė (Mars) and Vaivora (Mercury), sometimes appear in mythic stories too.
In general Gods are called Devas. No Asuras. Pre Christian Latvian Mythology is similar
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_20317 »

shiv wrote:Lithuanian gods with an India connection
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Lithuanian_gods
  • Vakarinė or Vakarė (the evening Venus, who makes the bed for Saulė, the sun), Indraja (Jupiter; Indra in Hinduism), Sėlija (Saturn), Žiezdrė (Mars) and Vaivora (Mercury), sometimes appear in mythic stories too.
In general Gods are called Devas. No Asuras. Pre Christian Latvian Mythology is similar


Vakri means twisted, crooked, winding, roundabout, indirect, evasive and ambiguous.

Shukracharya is the guru of Asuras.

Looks like some connections there.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by peter »

shiv wrote:Lithuanian gods with an India connection
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Lithuanian_gods
  • Dievas, the Chief God (whose name was possibly cognate with the Hindu Dyaus, Germanic Tiwaz and Greek Zeus).
  • Aušrinė, the Morning Star, a goddess, a daughter of the God ("dievaitė"). She was the goddess of the morning. Aušrinė has many similarities with Vedic Ushas, the Greek goddess Eos, and the Roman goddess Aurora. Alternatively her name is given as Aušra ("dawn").
  • Laima, goddess of Fate and Luck (Laxmi in Hinduism)
  • Perkūnas, the Thunder, a son of God ("dievaitis") (Parjanya in Hinduism). (Also Perun in Slovenia)
  • Saulė, the Sun (Surya in Hinduism).
  • Vakarinė or Vakarė (the evening Venus, who makes the bed for Saulė, the sun), Indraja (Jupiter; Indra in Hinduism), Sėlija (Saturn), Žiezdrė (Mars) and Vaivora (Mercury), sometimes appear in mythic stories too.
In general Gods are called Devas. No Asuras. Pre Christian Latvian Mythology is similar
These are awesome series of posts on correlation of Geography with Genetics. Can we tempt you to write it up in a more organized manner and submit it to a journal or conference?

Have you seen Hans Rsoling's presentations?

http://www.gapminder.org/

I wonder if we could create animations of Roslings kind.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_23700 »

shiv wrote:below is an image of ice age glaciation. You can see how the route from India to Africa was free from permafrost.
Image
Shiv,

Does the source site mention timing for this scenario, 18Kya?

In any case, note that Antartica is shown as free of ice. But that is not the only relevant thing. Alaska, parts of Siberia, Mexico, Equdor, Brazil, most of Africa, Thailand, Indonesia, of course India, Malasia, Phillipines, parts of Australia.. are all shown free from ice.

Route to Americas via Alaska is alluded to in Ancient Indian literature... + someone from India leaving for Americas left in NE direction (!). Imp to note water currents existed (at least around 3000 BC) that made journey from Japan to Equador .. relatively pleasant... in fact japanese pottary from ~3000 BC period is found in Equador and there are indications that these could be migrations that occurred as early as 12000 years ago.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Peter I do want to write it up, but the topic is huge and I am still collecting references. I would think that my job would be worth it if I can collect up a lot of anti-AIT refs and then come up with an alternative hypothesis. That is definitely possible but I need to work on it.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

AntuBarwa wrote: Does the source site mention timing for this scenario, 18Kya?
No. I saw a whole lot of images that purported to represent the permanent ice cap at the height of the last ice age and simply selected that one because it was more or less similar in extent of ice in Europe to others and was the right size for the forum. There seems to be a specific geological methodology in detecting the geographic areas with permafrost and these are the areas that seem to have shown evidence

Here is a better labelled image with a similar "ice free" Alaska. It shows the extent of summer and winter sea ice. Presumably other areas did not have ice in summer, and I suspect areas like India had no ice at all except the far north
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c ... eet_hg.png
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

I am now starting to collect genetic refs to the countries of the Pontic steppe:

1.Azeris
http://www.khazaria.com/genetics/azeris.html
Here's a quick summary of the most common Azeri haplogroups. In terms of Y-DNA (paternal genetics), haplogroup J2 is the most prevalent with about 20 percent of Azeri men having it, followed by haplogroup G at a frequency of 18 percent. Others found in Azeri men are T (11%), R1b (11%), R1a (7%), E (6%), I (3%), and some others (15%). Within these haplogroups, some Azeri men specifically have the haplogroups T1, E1b1b1c1 (this one originated in Anatolia), G2a3b1, and R1b1a2.

Azeri people who live in Iran were found to possess DNA types also found among Iranian peoples (especially the Iranians of Iran) and other peoples of the Caucasus. Their most common mtDNA haplogroups are H (25.57%) and U (20.3%), followed by T (11.28%), J (11.28%), and HV (9.77%).

Azeris are a mixture of Caucasians, Iranians, Near Easterners, Europeans, and Turkmens, in that order of importance.
2. Armenians: The page linked below shows Armenian genetic links.
http://blogs.discovermagazine.com/gnxp/ ... armenians/

Mostly West Asian, Greek, Turkish links. Some "Central/South Asian" whatever that means

3. Ukraine
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ukrainians#Genetic
Ukrainians show the characteristic R1a genes of the patrilineal descent from a single male at a very high frequency of 41.5-54.0%.[73] Such high frequencies of R1a have been found only in Poland, Russia, Slovenia, and on the Indian subcontinent.[74]
Population of ethnic Ukrainians in Ukraine by oblast (2001)
Population of ethnic Ukrainians in Ukraine by raion (2001)
Religion: Sociology pool by Razumkov centre about church membership in Ukraine (2006).

DNA tests of Y chromosomes from representative sample of Ukrainians were analyzed for composition and frequencies of haplogroups. In the Ukrainian gene, pool six haplogroups were revealed: E, F (including G and I), J, N3, P, and R1a1. The major haplogroup in the Ukrainian gene pool, Haplogroup R1a is thought to mark the migration patterns of the early Indo-Europeans and is associated with the distribution of the Kurgan archaeological culture.
Now you know where R1A1 comes from? 8)

Here is Wiki on R1A1a
1. In Ukraine the M17 and M458 "European gene" is found. That M548 does not occur in India ruling out movement of Ukrainians to India
Central European cluster (M458 - R1a1a1g) Cluster N is not concentrated in Poland, but is apparently common in many Slavic areas i.e. Czech republic, Slovakia, Poland, Eastern Germany - Lusatia, Bavaria, Western Ukraine.
Other than this Wiki says "R1a1a frequencies are patchy in Central Asia."

Will do Kazakhstan some other time.. couldn't find anything intersting.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

This is where Kurgan is
Image
And hey Presto, R1A1a M17 turns up in Kurgan graves
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kurgan_hypothesis
Haplogroup R1a1a distribution.

Geneticists have noted the correlation of a specific haplogroup R1a1a defined by the M17 (SNP marker) of the Y chromosome and speakers of Indo-European languages in Europe and Asia. The connection between Y-DNA R-M17 and the spread of Indo-European languages was first proposed by Zerjal and colleagues in 1999.[8] and subsequently supported by other authors.[9] Spencer Wells deduced from this correlation that R1a1a arose on the Pontic-Caspian steppe.[10]

Subsequent studies on ancient DNA tested the hypothesis. Skeletons from the Andronovo culture horizon (strongly supposed to be culturally Indo-Iranian) of south Siberia were tested for DNA. Of the 10 males, 9 carried Y-DNA R1a1a (M17). Fairly close matches were found between the ancient DNA STR haplotypes and those in living persons in both eastern Europe and Siberia.[11] Mummies in the Tarim Basin also proved to carry R1a1a and were presumed to be ancestors of Tocharian speakers.[12]

A study published in 2012 states that "R1a1a7-M458 was absent in Afghanistan, suggesting that R1a1a-M17 does not support, as previously thought, expansions from the Pontic Steppe, bringing the Indo-European languages to Central Asia and India.
The Wiki Page argues that M17 went from Pontic steppe to India, but that fails to explain the fact that India has the highest concentration and diversity of M17 consistent with its origin in India. The age of M17 in India is 16,000 years as per the Underhill paper and not the piddly 4000 years suggested for spread of PIE
ramana
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by ramana »

peter wrote:
ramana wrote:[..]

Peter, Did you read Kota Venkatchalam's "Age of Mahabharata"? Send me a note if you did.
No I did not. I have heard of it. What does he say about the war?

http://forums.bharat-rakshak.com/viewto ... 0#p1334210

Read what he says about Rajputs in pages 20 onwards...

And lets follow up in the Historical Battles thread..
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by johneeG »

I was thinking about something and suddenly an idea came to me: Is it possible that 'tie' was imported from India?

Image

Hindus wear an upper cloth(apart from shirt) and a lower cloth. The lower cloth is called 'dhoti'. The upper cloth is called 'uttariya' It is a piece of cloth that is draped around the upper body. If one is wearing a shirt, then it is draped over the shirt.

There are variety of ways to wear the uttariya:

a) Wearing the uttariya on the shoulder:
Image

b) Draping the uttariya around the body with or without covering the head:
Image

c) More stylish version of the above method:
Image

c) Wearing the uttariya around the neck:
Image
In this style, it is not uncommon to tie the two loose ends of uttariya into a knot around the neck for the sake of convenience, so that the uttariya does not fall off. This style may have transformed into a tie.

Below is a picture of old western clothing:
Image
The scarf (or kerchief or piece of cloth) is tied around the neck. Is it possible that it was imported from India?

As far as I know, there is no particular reason for wearing a tie, even though it is considered a sign of culture to wear a tie in western civilization. In India, uttariya was considered part of attire. In Hinduism, Uttariya is given a religious importance. So, in India(particularly Hinduism), there is a context for the Uttariya. While, there seems to be no context for tie even though it is considered a sign of culture. It is interesting because unlike other parts of a clothing a tie or uttariya is not necessary, it is like an accessory. So, what is the importance of tie? Why should one wear it? I don't think there is any social or religious answer to it in the western context. It is only in the Indian context that we see uttariya having a religious context which later translated to social vogue. Why is 'context'(or lack of it) important? If something developed at a place, then it has a background(a context). A lack of context can show that it was not developed at that place but was rather imported from another place.

Just to finish off:
A popular portrayal of Jesus Christ. In the picture, he is wearing an uttariya(not a tie):
Image

Hindu Gods wear uttariya and Hinduism gives a religious importance to uttariya. So, there is a context for Hindu Gods in uttariya. I think portraying Hindu Gods in a tie would hurt the sentiments of Hindus. But, does uttariya have any importance in christianity? Does tie have any importance in christianity? Why is Jesus portrayed in uttariya? Why not a tie? Would portraying him in a tie hurt any religious sentiments of Christians?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Vayutuvan »

I may be wrong, but I thought a tie is worn to stop cold air reaching one's skin.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Virupaksha »

Tie is a torture to wear. I would be grateful if it originated in some dumb ass country.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

The Roman toga is more likely connected with this Indian attire
Image
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Abhibhushan »

JohneeG wrote:
Is it possible that 'tie' was imported from India?
I remember being taught in my childhood that in the old Roman Empire the subjugated people were required to wear a piece of rope around their neck and the neck tie is a derivative of that old custom in the British Isle!
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

The tie comes from when buttons and other fasteners were expensive, this was a way to secure the top of your shirt.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

If we accuse Europan scholars of "India blindness", Indians may be India obsessed. We too have spent too much time looking inwards at ourselves.

Let me introduce you to the genetic history of Europe

Europe started getting a human population only about 40,000 years or so. But at 30,000 years widespread icing up caused a depopulation of Europe. The remaining humans are said to have found "refuges" in Europe from where repopulation occured

Here is Wiki
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_hi ... opulations
The Last Glacial Maximum ("LGM") started c. 30 ka BC, at the end of MIS 3, leading to a depopulation of Northern Europe. According to the classical model, people took refuge in climatic sanctuaries (or refugia) as follows:

Northern Iberia and Southwest France, together making up the "Franco-Cantabrian" refugium.
The Balkans.
Ukraine and more generally the northern coast of the Black Sea.[62]
Italy[65]

This event decreased the overall genetic diversity in Europe, a "result of drift, consistent with an inferred population bottleneck during the Last Glacial Maximum".[66] As the glaciers receded from about 16,000-13,000 years ago, Europe began to be slowly repopulated by people from refugia, leaving genetic signatures.[67]
After the Ice age the genes in the refugia spread all over Europe. Nowadays Europeans have the following 2 genes in large percentages - some of which took refuge in the Balkans
1. R1b
2. I2

R1b occurs in less than 1% of Indians and I2 is not found outside of Europe. That means that India has not got any population from Europe after the end of the Ice age 13,000 years ago. Not even from Pontic steppe or Balkans, R1a1a is now found in the Balkans - but that arrived in the Balkans about 11,000 to 10,000 years ago. R1A1a (M17) has its oldest origins in India 16,000 years ago

There has been migration from India to the Balkans after the end of the Ice age in Europe. Since the Languages in the area that have R1A1a are closely related to Indian languages and the mythology retains Indian links, it is more likely that the language spread from India to those regions after the ice age rather than some fake route to India via Pontic steppe 4500 years ago.

This is an epic fail of linguistics.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

I seem to be the only guy living on this thread :roll: Never mind - I'm on a roll

I bring up this subject after many weeks because it seems to show how stupid and blind we have been cowed down and intimidated by the abracadabra of linguistic jargon

Check the following words for horse. To claim that all these words for horse in European IE languages have a single origin demands that you are either deaf, or blind, or just plain stupid
http://www.fionalake.com.au/other-info/ ... orse-words
'Equus' Classical Latin. Hence the words equine, equestrian, equitation etc.
'Caballus' common Latin (slang) for horse of poor quality, i.e. a nag. Caballus turned into Italian 'cavallo', Spanish 'caballo', French 'cheval', and horse-related English words such as 'cavalry'.
'Hippos' Greek. Hence the words 'hippopotamus' - which means 'river horse', and 'hippodrome' - horse racecourse or track (as there was at ancient Olympia more than 2,000 years ago).

Words for Horse in Other Languages

cheval
French (France)

cavalo
Portuguese (Portugal and Brazil)

cavallo
Italian (Italy)

cavall
Catalan (Spain and southern France)

caballo
Spanish (Spain, Argentina, Mexico)

pferd
German (Germany)

paard
Flemish (Belgium)

paard
Dutch (Netherlands)

perd
Afrikaans (South Africa)

hevonen
Finnish (Finland)

hast
Swedish (Sweden)

hest
Danish (Denmark) Norwegian (Norway)

hestur
Icelandic (Iceland)

lo
Hungarian (Hungary)

cal
Romanian (Romania)

kon
Polish (Poland)

kon (koHb)
Belarusian (Belarus) Russian (Russia)

konj (koHb)
Macedonian (Macedonia), Serbian (Serbia), Croatian (Croatia), Bosnian (Bosnia) Slovenian (Slovenia)

kon (koH)
Bulgarian (Bulgaria)

kin (kiHb)
Ukrainian (Ukraine)

beygir
Turkish (Turkey)

capall
Irish (Ireland); also 'eoch' (Irish - Gaelic)

ceffyl
Welsh (Wales)

cuddy
Scottish (Scotland)
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

I was searching for the words for "wheel" in Slovenian
http://translation.kids.net.au/translat ... word/wheel
The Slovenian translation for Wheel is Kolo .

Translations in other languages:

Danish: hjul
Dutch: wiel
Finnish: pyörä
French: roue
Georgian: ბორბალი
German: Rad
Greek: τροχός
Hungarian: kerék
Ido: roto
Italian: ruota
Latin: rota
Latvian: ritenis
Lithuanian: ratas
Polish: koło
Portuguese: roda
Russian: колесо
Slovak: koleso
Spanish: rueda
Swedish: hjul
Telugu: చక్రం
Ukrainian: колесо
Clearly the Sanskrit ratha is taken as cognate but what about Slovenian and other Baltic languages with "kol" or "kolo". They too have a Sanskrit cognate in "Gol"

From the Indian viewpoint, only an infant will call a wheel "gol" . Gol is a shape. A wheel is a wheel. All wheels are gol, All gols are not wheels. The full moon is not a wheel. A ripe, near spherical fruit is not a wheel.

It is highly likely that the word for "round" was invented long before the word for "wheel". The Slavic languages and Polish - all of whom have populations bearing the R1A1a genetic marker seem to use "kol" which is cognate for Sanskrit "gol". It is likely that those languages went out of India before the wheel was invented.

Incidentally, the genetic marker that is associated with R1A1a in Europe (but not in India) is M458, This originated in Poland abound 10,000 years ago. But R1A1a1 (M17) is from India 16,000 years ago when Europe was still just getting out of the ice age.

Claiming that the word for wheel came out of one source in Pontic steppe is a self-gol. 360 degrees.
Last edited by shiv on 13 Oct 2012 09:52, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Vayutuvan »

those words for horse are as dissimilar as they can get
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by ramana »

JhoneeG, The modern tie is a short version of the caravat or the bandana. It was worn to save the shirt from food drippings like runny soup.

Any good book on western costume would tell us about the evolution of the tie.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

Yes, Shiv, if you can find Xaverio Balester's book, it too takes down the PIE horse, we are told.

Eg mention here
http://languagecontinuity.blogspot.com/ ... idows.html
Last edited by A_Gupta on 13 Oct 2012 09:57, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Vayutuvan »

Telugu chakram doesn't even sound like kol
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

http://languagecontinuity.blogspot.com/ ... -work.html

How Scandinavia Was Invaded Theory does not work.
Similar arguments apply to India.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

The South Asian origin of R1a1a-M17 seems quite settled at this point.... I agree with Shiv, no point beating the dead horse of AIT. We should probably move towards linguistic speculation on spread of language and culture that supports the OIT picture emerging from genetics.

Just to collect in one place the various papers that confirm S. Asian origin of R1a1a: Kivisild et al. (2003), Mirabal et al. (2009), Underhill et al. (2009), Sengupta et al. (2005), Sahoo et al. (2006), Sharma et al. (2009 & 2012), and Thangaraj et al. (2010)

The only hold-outs, though evidence is weak, seem to be: Cordaux et al. (2004) & Zhao et al (2009).
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote:Yes, Shiv, if you can find Xaverio Balester's book, it too takes down the PIE horse, we are told.

Eg mention here
http://languagecontinuity.blogspot.com/ ... idows.html
Thx. I saw the link. I am currently loaded with reading to be done but will look at this sooner rather than later because it's on my mind.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

matrimc wrote:Telugu chakram doesn't even sound like kol
Conveniently quoted in gol-gol-kola Telugu text so no one can tell.

Again "chakra" seems to have an IE cognate in kyklos/cycle/circle. Different from gol, ratha and mandala.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Brilliant stuff - from this link.. :rotfl: . Both Brihaspati and I have repeatedly pointted out the existence of circular reasoning in linguistic reconstructions of PIE
First, she focuses on some of the laws that have been proposed for PIE, and finds that in many cases they might be examples of circular reasoning. To test her hypothesis, she applies a quantitative test to a set of reconstrucetd PIE words (the verbal roots in Rix's dictionary, 1998). The results are as follows: 66% of the recontructed verbs are based on words found in only one or two of the IE branches; only 34 % are attested in three or more branches. On the other hand, it is supposed that the laws governing phonetic change in IE, e.g. Grimm's Law, should be a useful tool to determine these reconstructions. However, these laws are usually modified with a series of secondary laws or refinements, so that there is always some kind of intricately designed new parameter to explain any apparent deviation from the norm. Marcantonio has clearly shown that, when you have a PIE verbal root with forms attested in many IE branches, a high number of laws is needed to account for the whole set. In some cases, the number of rules equals the number of forms. This is how the corpus of PIE reconstructions has grown in the last 150 years: by a cumulative amount of laws, many of them designed 'ad hoc'. What is the use of a law, e.g. Grimm's Law, if it is immediately followed by new laws, e.g. Verner's, to make it tenable? Marcantonio sees the adjustable parameters of PIE laws as an indication of circularity.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by JE Menon »

>>In some cases, the number of rules equals the number of forms. :D :D :D
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Supratik »

shiv wrote:
After 1000 BC there has been plenty of admixture due to invasions up to the Indus. The Mesopotamians were attacking as early as 800 BC. Ctesias is on record as saying that one Queen Semirames took Gandhara (NWFP/Pathan land) in 800 BC . By 500 BC Gandhara was under Darius. Later Alexander took it. There are records of Greek men marrying Indian women and living in the area. There were Greek Buddhists. So European genes after 2500 BC is no surprise, This is not AIT. It is recorded history. History is older than people who read history via an AIT tint are wiling to believe.

It is difficult to say what they mean by Pathans. Why would one study Muslims when the idea is to study the earliest genetic components of South Asia? May be they should have clarified. There are plenty of Hindu Pathans whose mother tongue is Hindko (e.g. the Kapoor khandan) and are considered to be the NWestern most people who speak an Indic langauge. As rightly pointed out they may have admixture of pre-Muslim immigrants/invaders but even then they have 71% ANI which suggests that these admixtures did not cause dramatic deviations. Where does the "European genes" come from and who is supporting AIT? We are talking about ANI/ASI.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Supratik »

shiv wrote: The paper itself admits that this was done by fitting the findings to a model and cautions against the errors this may cause.
The biggest problem is 99% of people can understand only 3 words in that paper: "Ancestral North Indian"

That is a standard disclaimer and I am in a related profession so I understand more than just "Ancestral North Indian". Just like you understand more than aspirin.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by johneeG »

shiv wrote:The Roman toga is more likely connected with this Indian attire
Image
Yep, this is quite straight-forward. This is likely related to the following style:
Draping the uttariya around the body with or without covering the head:
Image
This also possibly explains why Jesus is portrayed in an uttariya or toga draped around shoulders. So, he is simply shown in a roman attire. Though, I am curious whether christians would be hurt if Jesus is depicted in a suit and tie.

Interestingly, christian pope and other churchmen seem to wear a piece of cloth hanging from their neck (with no knot).

Uttariya around the neck(without the knot):
Image

Uttariya around the shoulders:
Image
Note, the typical Indian style of borders on the above robe that he has draped.

Intriguingly, the christian pope doesn't seem to wear a tie.

----
The one famous ancient Indian icon that is portrayed wearing the uttariya in the same manner as the depiction of Jesus is: Buddha.

Image

This is another datapoint in favour of Jesus being a crypto-buddhist fictional figure. In Indian context, Buddha is the only ancient religious icon that is represented with uttariya draped around his shoulders without covering the head(the same manner in which Jesus is depicted). Mahavira is generally portrayed as naked. Hindu Gods are shown wearing the uttariya in a more stylish manner. So, there are not only conformity in tales of Buddha and Jesus but also in their attires.

Generally, Hindu Gods are not portrayed in the toga style of uttariya. It is more stylishly draped:
Image

However, the regular Hindus wear uttariya in various styles(including toga style).
---
So, roman/greek toga may be a direct descendent of one style of wearing uttariya. While, tie may be a transformation of the following style of wearing uttariya:
c) Wearing the uttariya around the neck:
Image
In this style, it is not uncommon to tie the two loose ends of uttariya into a knot around the neck for the sake of convenience, so that the uttariya does not fall off. This style may have transformed into a tie.
Virupaksha wrote:Tie is a torture to wear. I would be grateful if it originated in some dumb ass country.
It is indeed torturous to wear any cloth around the neck. It seems, in recent times, more and more people don't want to wear a tie unless it is an official requirement.

I think this is an important pointer. Because, the reaction of the earlier times would have been similar. People would have stopped using tie especially once it stopped having any use. Yet, tie continued to be used, even though it served no purpose.

If one assumes that tie was invented(and intended) for a purpose 'X', then tie would have gone out of fashion, once the 'X' became irrelevant. But that has not happened. So, the rational conclusion is that even though the tie may have been used for 'X', it was not intended or invented for only that purpose. I mean co-relation is not equal to cause.

So, all of the below points may be true. I mean, tie may have been used to serve all of the following purposes and more. But, was it invented for these purposes?

If you are going to wear a piece of cloth around your neck, you may as well use it to keep your neck warm, or fasten your shirt more tightly, or hide the dirt marks on your shirt, or use it to save the shirt from food droppings, or distinguish yourself from others by wearing it specially, or wipe the sweat off the brow, so on and so forth. In short, you can use it in variety of ways according to your needs. But, the question is whether is was intended(and invented) for this purpose?

All of these seem like a very trivial reason to introduce a new and long-lasting change in an attire, especially since those purposes can be more easily and effectively served by other means than a tie.
matrimc wrote:I may be wrong, but I thought a tie is worn to stop cold air reaching one's skin.
I presumed the same sometime back:

But:
a) women's clothing doesn't seem to have any corresponding feature to keep the cold out. Some women's clothing did have cloths around the neck, but it seems more of a style statement than otherwise. Women wore shawls around their shoulders which is a far more effective way to stop the cold.
b) people from other cold regions(like Eskimos) don't seem to have this feature(cloth around their necks).
c) there are more effective ways to stop the cold than a tie. Some of the ties are useless against the cold.

I am not saying that tie was not used for keeping the neck warm. I am saying that it may not be the reason for its invention and that may not be its primary use.
Abhibhushan wrote:JohneeG wrote:
Is it possible that 'tie' was imported from India?
I remember being taught in my childhood that in the old Roman Empire the subjugated people were required to wear a piece of rope around their neck and the neck tie is a derivative of that old custom in the British Isle!
I don't know if this happened, but lets assume this did happen. Would those people continue to wear what were symbols of their subjugation? Would such changes in attire survive for such a long time?

Seems a bit difficult to swallow that such a change in attire can survive for such a long time despite it having no productive use. I am not saying that it is not possible to use ties to distinguish people(by the social rank). It is very much possible. I think the longevity is an indicator that perhaps the ties were already part of the attire and that they were changed to indicate the new social rank.
A_Gupta wrote:The tie comes from when buttons and other fasteners were expensive, this was a way to secure the top of your shirt.
There are 2 possibilities:
1) top of the shirt is the only place where a shirt could be secured. And for this one place, people resorted to using clothes instead of very expensive fasteners or buttons.
2) rest of the shirt had other fasteners or buttons, while the top of the shirt was secured with a cloth around the neck.

In case (1), buying a single fastener would be enough. In case (2), one is already buying other fasteners or buttons, so one more extra fastener or button has to be bought for the top of the shirt. Also, securing the top of the shirt is not a compulsory. So, if one does not have a fastener to secure it, one would leave it open, instead of spoiling the look with a cloth around the neck.

Moreover, the tie seems to be taken as a sign of culture and people of high rank seem to have practiced it more diligently than the masses. So, this explanation does not work.
ramana wrote:JhoneeG, The modern tie is a short version of the caravat or the bandana. It was worn to save the shirt from food drippings like runny soup.

Any good book on western costume would tell us about the evolution of the tie.
Ramana garu,
this reason seems a tad silly. Because, if that was the only purpose, then one would wear it only during meals. Why would one wear it all the time? For example, some people also place napkins on their lap while eating. But, they don't tie a napkin around their waist all the time, do they?

Also, if the tie was full of food drippings, then it would make sense to remove it after the meal and show the clean shirt to others instead of continuing to sport that dirty tie around the neck concealing the clean shirt. Infact, it defeats the purpose of keeping the shirt clean if that shirt is covered by the cloth which is covered in food drippings.

Anyway, it is interesting that wiki offers another 'origin' story for tie tied to another event:
The modern necktie taken up, then spread by, Western Europe traces back to the time of Thirty Years' War (1618–1648) when Croatian mercenaries from the Croatian Military Frontier in French service, wearing their traditional small, knotted neckerchiefs, aroused the interest of the Parisians. Due to the slight difference between the Croatian word for Croats, Hrvati, and the French word, Croates, the garment gained the name "cravat".[1] The new article of clothing started a fashion craze in Europe where both men and women wore pieces of fabric around their necks.
All that may well have happened. But, the point to note is that these croatians were only following their general routine, not inventing anything new. So, the same question gets repeated, why so they wear a kerchief around their necks? Whats the context? Is there a context? I don't think there is any context. Also, are we sure that others(including europeans) were not wearing similar neck clothing before this event?

In fact, there seems to be a long history of neck clothing along with draping the clothing around the shoulders(2 ways of wearing uttariya) before and after this croatian incident.

For example, in Rome:

a) A general wearing a toga or uttariya around the shoulders:
Image
(This may be the inspiration for the cape around the nape of the neck of western cartoon superheroes like Superman. That means, Superman also wears the uttariya. :mrgreen: )


b) Pictures of Roman soldiers from approximately 100 B.C. show them wearing neck cloths:
Image

So, the same culture has two variations of uttariya.

---
In china:
The Qin Emperor’s Terracotta Warriors wore silk cords around their necks as signs of their elite status(221 to 206 BC):
Image

----
In Europe:

different style of neckclothing:
2 images:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c ... a-1818.gif
http://beehivestudio.typepad.com/Blog_I ... Ties13.jpg
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Supratik wrote:
shiv wrote:
After 1000 BC there has been plenty of admixture due to invasions up to the Indus. The Mesopotamians were attacking as early as 800 BC. Ctesias is on record as saying that one Queen Semirames took Gandhara (NWFP/Pathan land) in 800 BC . By 500 BC Gandhara was under Darius. Later Alexander took it. There are records of Greek men marrying Indian women and living in the area. There were Greek Buddhists. So European genes after 2500 BC is no surprise, This is not AIT. It is recorded history. History is older than people who read history via an AIT tint are wiling to believe.

It is difficult to say what they mean by Pathans. Why would one study Muslims when the idea is to study the earliest genetic components of South Asia? May be they should have clarified. There are plenty of Hindu Pathans whose mother tongue is Hindko (e.g. the Kapoor khandan) and are considered to be the NWestern most people who speak an Indic langauge. As rightly pointed out they may have admixture of pre-Muslim immigrants/invaders but even then they have 71% ANI which suggests that these admixtures did not cause dramatic deviations. Where does the "European genes" come from and who is supporting AIT? We are talking about ANI/ASI.
Hindu and Sikh Pushtuns are a dwindling group. One can check out their genetics! Today however the main body of the Pushtuns are indeed Muslims. So if one wants to know the genetic makeup of the Pushtuns one has to check it on the Muslim Pushtuns (as well).

So I think, we should leave the Hindu-Muslim issue on this. If there is some Arabic or Turkic genetic input it would come out.

Secondly I had already posted the latest paper on this issue, and the findings are quite clear. There is hardly any Arabic genetic input among the Pushtuns, and the Turkic is also under 10%.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Supratik wrote:
shiv wrote: The paper itself admits that this was done by fitting the findings to a model and cautions against the errors this may cause.
The biggest problem is 99% of people can understand only 3 words in that paper: "Ancestral North Indian"

That is a standard disclaimer and I am in a related profession so I understand more than just "Ancestral North Indian". Just like you understand more than aspirin.
Would you be able to say what was path-breaking in that paper other than fancy terminology like ASI/ANI that is not particularly convincing, given their numbers and selection. My comment was in response to your description of that paper being "path breaking".
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Supratik wrote: It is difficult to say what they mean by Pathans. Why would one study Muslims when the idea is to study the earliest genetic components of South Asia? May be they should have clarified.
There is a lot more than that they have to clarify. Why on earth are Siddis part of the selection? Heck they have only 130 samples and 5% or more are Siddis?

And unless I am mistaken the paper's diagnosis of ASI/ANI is based on distance from Onge of Andamans. Is that weird or is that weird? Is there any paper that suggests that "ASI genes" are closer to Onge?

Also I discovered today that the standard for "European Genes" (CEU) is the genetic map of several hundred individuals in Utah. What on earth does that mean? The same project seems to use "Gujarati genes" from Texas.

In the ultimate analysis it appears that Indian genes are closer to each other than others while there is a gradient from north west to south east. Given that migration was always from north west for tens of thousands of years the exact meaning of that paper is mysterious because India is a continent sized country.

As an aside I really wonder why Pathans come under "Indians" when it comes to genetics but Vedas were composed in Pakistan? There is a political undertone in these studies that may not be deliberate - it is a hangover from the 19th century. This is why any Indian claim on the Vedas is countered with "Hindutva" and jingoism.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Supratik »

RajeshA wrote:
Hindu and Sikh Pushtuns are a dwindling group. One can check out their genetics! Today however the main body of the Pushtuns are indeed Muslims. So if one wants to know the genetic makeup of the Pushtuns one has to check it on the Muslim Pushtuns (as well).

So I think, we should leave the Hindu-Muslim issue on this. If there is some Arabic or Turkic genetic input it would come out.

Secondly I had already posted the latest paper on this issue, and the findings are quite clear. There is hardly any Arabic genetic input among the Pushtuns, and the Turkic is also under 10%.
Yes, they are a small group but they are still present. As I said I wouldn't study Indo-Iranian speaking Pashtuns or Muslim Pathans in order to study the earliest genetic composition of the subcontinent. If they did I would like to know why.
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