Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

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KLP Dubey
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

RajeshA wrote:Was there ever a time when the Vedas were understood? If yes, by whom? If no, who would be able to understand in the future if not humans?
Answer to that: I don't know. Nobody does. I hope you have some understanding of Indian philosophy and the concept of "dharma", which pertains to preservation and attempts to understand the significance the Vedic sounds. It is emphatically clear in Vedic philosophy that "dharma" is not something that is already achieved (bhUta) but that which is to be continually strived for (bhavishyat).

Is it not the same way with science ? Nobody understands the laws of the universe. We have a little bit of knowledge, and the more we learn that greater the number of new questions which arise. Some even argue that we may never be able to fully understand the laws of nature at all. That doesn't deter us from the pursuit, in the course of which many other tangential benefits also accrue.
There are many Brahmins who have seen it as their life's work to both preserve the Vedas and to study them! You are basically saying there is nobody who understands them!
Yes sir I am. And every single Vedic pandit will agree with me. Nobody understands the meaning of the RV Samhita. That is why all Indian schools of philosophy (darshanas) have treated them as a "constant" while focusing on the brahmanas and the upanishads. There has never developed in India a school of thought engaged in the interpretation of the "meanings" of the RV sounds. Such attempts were few and far between and there was no cohesive effort. The reason is simple: it was soon realized that there were way too many inconsistencies when trying to force-fit Sanskrit meanings to Vedic words.

Therefore, the focus was on preserving the Vedic sounds for future generations and to continue to develop ancillary disciplines centered around the Vedic sounds in order to derive other benefits. Also, a mistake (though understandable) was made in restricting the "maintenance" of the Veda to a particular caste/group of individuals. If we have more collective responsibility for the Veda without any narrow turf-battles, then such issues would never arise.
And as soon as a human would presume some meaning in some word in the Vedas, it would automatically be false! It is interesting that you can make such a generalized statement!
I am not cooking up these statements. I make them from a solid philosophical and epistemological foundation rooted in the Indian world-view.

I did not say the humanly-derived meaning is "false". I said before, anyone is free to assign whatever meaning they want to the RV sounds. In fact I already listed several disciplines that arose from such attemptes and have contributed enormously to Indian civilization. I am saying exactly that one cannot use these word-associations as historical arguments. In order to do so, one would need an independent testimony that identified the person who made the association, what was his legitimate connection with the sounds of the Veda, what was the context of the word-association, and so forth. Such an independent testimony is simply not available since any records of this are lost. What we have is nighantu and nirukta, but these are just "catalogs" and do not contain historical testimony or records.

One of the problems with the AIT/OIT debate is that it seems to have no epistemological foundation. It's a free-for-all with all the disputants making ad-hoc arguments. In particular, the epistemological category (pramana) of "testimony" seems to be badly abused in these arguments.

I appreciate the great efforts of the OIT and anti-PIE theorists. The problem is that you are fighting the AIT/PIE on *its* turf, and moreover a debate based on trying to find history and geography in the RV will continue FOREVER unless one side gives up. Do you not see that the AIT/PIE folks have a vested interest in keeping this going? It's what enables them to keep cranking out crap papers in low-impact journals, get some funding, infect students with the same disease, keep "the field" going, etc.

Bring the battle to *our turf* and see how quickly these guys lose and die. The first step is to conclusively disprove and reject the absurd theory that it is possible to find history, geography, and human culture in the Rgveda. The framework for doing that is already there in Mimamsa and Vedanta and it has successfully defeated many others (e.g., NV, Sankhya, Buddhists, etc etc) in the past. Especially the Buddhist arguments were extremely powerful, so much more than these puny AIT/PIE jokers. The Veda has prevailed and it always will. Please help in the right way, and not in wrong (although well-intentioned) ways.
You have very forcefully made your case that all fundamental aspects of Hinduism such as Yajnas, Philosophical Enquiry, Puranic literature, etc. deriving from the Vedas are abysmal failures and logical fallacies! The various sciences that have grown out of Vedas or in parallel to the Vedas being heard are also just flukes which occurred when Indians assigned some meaning to the words of the Vedas!
What are you talking about ? I am saying very clearly that these disciplines grown out of the Vedas were NOT flukes. They arose due to deliberate theories and attempts to interrogate various aspects of the RV sounds. I have great respect for these disciplines, but I did point examples of overreach which led to absurd conclusions.
In fact I would say, even in grammar one would to some extent have to assign some meaning to the words, even if it is just the word's gender, so I guess even the second point cannot be valid as per your contention!
You are saying the same thing as I am. Maybe you are not understanding my post. I entirely agree that in grammar one must assign some meanings (what is the use of a language with no word-meanings)? Did I not say clearly that this was how the Sanskrit language was created ? I was pointing out that having done this word-association, created Sanskrit meanings for Vedic sounds, one cannot go back and reverse-engineer the meaning of the Vedic sounds! This is impossible unless there is an independent testimony of the time, location, and context of those word-association.
So sir, you have reduced the use of Vedas to nothing! I suppose some Abrahamics would someday use this argument to claim that Vedas means nothing really, and a human can understand them not any more than he would understand some bird chirps!
I have NOT reduced anything. Again I fail to understand your reasoning. I have myself pointed out many "uses" of the Veda. As with science, human nature has used the Veda in many "good" ways but also some "not-good" ways. I am saying, very specifically, that the AIT/OIT tendency to start using the RV to back up historical claims, is NOT a good use of the RV. We will all regret it one day.

Best Wishes,
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_23700 »

RajeshA wrote: If I may add my own thinking as to why Yamuna is not mentioned in Mandala VI, the oldest Mandala!

Actually the authors mean Yamuna moving from Saraswati towards East! Interesting is that they say this change was between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
That means that Mandala VI of the Rig Veda, the oldest Mandala, in which Yamuna is NOT mentioned must have been composed/heard between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
I of course thank ManishH ji for pointing out this paper!
Brilliant.

While the logic is inductive, this is 100% of the time what Indologists and many linguists take support from. You are qualified (does not mean job is assured) to join Sanskrit department of Harvard and/or other such prestigious institutions.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

AntuBarwa wrote:
RajeshA wrote: If I may add my own thinking as to why Yamuna is not mentioned in Mandala VI, the oldest Mandala!

Actually the authors mean Yamuna moving from Saraswati towards East! Interesting is that they say this change was between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
That means that Mandala VI of the Rig Veda, the oldest Mandala, in which Yamuna is NOT mentioned must have been composed/heard between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
I of course thank ManishH ji for pointing out this paper!
My Ramayana work, I am confident, will show this to be the case, i.e. Yamuna disconnecting from Saraswati and moving towards east..many thousand years before 8000 BCE.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

RajeshA wrote: If I may add my own thinking as to why Yamuna is not mentioned in Mandala VI, the oldest Mandala!

Actually the authors mean Yamuna moving from Saraswati towards East! Interesting is that they say this change was between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
That means that Mandala VI of the Rig Veda, the oldest Mandala, in which Yamuna is NOT mentioned must have been composed/heard between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
I of course thank ManishH ji for pointing out this paper!
Frankfort's work also alludes to non-existance of 'Grand Saraswati of Rigveda' (early Mandalas) anytime after early Holocene (~10000 BC). Sure, Saraswati existed and possibly some areas rejuvinated in later times but not with its grandeur as described in RigVeda.

Saraswati of Mahabharata time (5561 BC) had many mythological stories associated with it (Balarama Tirthyatra of Saraswati) and river had disappeared in the sand and also flowing underground (same as disappearing?) in other places, during Mahabharata times.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Abhibhushan »

Nilesh Oak wrote:
RajeshA wrote: If I may add my own thinking as to why Yamuna is not mentioned in Mandala VI, the oldest Mandala!

Actually the authors mean Yamuna moving from Saraswati towards East! Interesting is that they say this change was between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
That means that Mandala VI of the Rig Veda, the oldest Mandala, in which Yamuna is NOT mentioned must have been composed/heard between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
I of course thank ManishH ji for pointing out this paper!
Frankfort's work also alludes to non-existance of 'Grand Saraswati of Rigveda' (early Mandalas) anytime after early Holocene (~10000 BC). Sure, Saraswati existed and possibly some areas rejuvinated in later times but not with its grandeur as described in RigVeda.

Saraswati of Mahabharata time (5561 BC) had many mythological stories associated with it (Balarama Tirthyatra of Saraswati) and river had disappeared in the sand and also flowing underground (same as disappearing?) in other places, during Mahabharata times.
Is there any clear reference in the MBH or Ramayan or any other scripture/Itihasa about Yamuna being a tributary to Saraswati? If so, where is it?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

Abhibhushan wrote:Is there any clear reference in the MBH or Ramayan or any other scripture/Itihasa about Yamuna being a tributary to Saraswati? If so, where is it?
Not to my knowledge. ditto for Sutlaj (shatudri). Other BRF members would know more.

The analysis is based on disappearance of Saraswati and its geographical position, i.e. between Sutlaj and Yamuna.

Satlaj turned sharp west near Ropar and I have told by Sri Kalyanraman ji that that spot is worth visiting. It is on my agenda, but not a priority right now.

Hope this helps,
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

RajeshA wrote:
A paper first, first pointed out by ManishH ji in some other context.

Geology, G32840.1, January 23, 2012,
U-Pb zircon dating evidence for a Pleistocene Sarasvati River and capture of the Yamuna River [Full]
Authors: Peter D. Clift¹, Andrew Carter², Liviu Giosan³, Julie Durcan⁴, Geoff A.T. Duller⁴, Mark G. Macklin⁴, Anwar Alizai⁵, Ali R. Tabrez⁶, Mohammed Danish⁶, Sam Van Laningham⁷, and Dorian Q. Fuller⁸

Actually the authors mean Yamuna moving from Saraswati towards East! Interesting is that they say this change was between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!

That means that Mandala VI of the Rig Veda, the oldest Mandala, in which Yamuna is NOT mentioned must have been composed/heard between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
This 'Gem' has much more that what meets the eye - during Bird's eyeview. Thank you Rajesh Ji and ManishH Ji.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by rohitvats »

Another mango-abdul question - does the 'discovery' of PIE predates or follows the propounding of AIT? Thanx.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Dipanker »

^PIE is not a discovery, it is a made up language, presumably based on cognate words (similar sounding and meaning) in the languages of so called Indo-European language family.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Nilesh Oak wrote:Satlaj turned sharp west near Ropar and I have told by Sri Kalyanraman ji that that spot is worth visiting. It is on my agenda, but not a priority right now.
I visited Ropar some time back!

One place to visit there is of course the Museum. It has got some nice artifacts (toys, itiyadi) from 2,600 BCE and before. There are also some excavations taking place on a mound nearby! Also worth visiting!

Other places around to visit are Anandpur Sahib! Langar there is perhaps not so good as Bangla Sahib but still great! Khalsa Heritage Memorial Complex can also be combined with that! Then there is the Bhakra Nangal Dam!
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

AntuBarwa wrote:
RajeshA wrote: If I may add my own thinking as to why Yamuna is not mentioned in Mandala VI, the oldest Mandala!

Actually the authors mean Yamuna moving from Saraswati towards East! Interesting is that they say this change was between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
That means that Mandala VI of the Rig Veda, the oldest Mandala, in which Yamuna is NOT mentioned must have been composed/heard between 47,000 BCE and 8,000 BCE!
I of course thank ManishH ji for pointing out this paper!
Brilliant.

While the logic is inductive, this is 100% of the time what Indologists and many linguists take support from. You are qualified (does not mean job is assured) to join Sanskrit department of Harvard and/or other such prestigious institutions.
Thank you sir for considering me for Harvard. It is one of my dreams to spit in Witzel's coffee!
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

RajeshA wrote: I visited Ropar some time back!

One place to visit there is of course the Museum. It has got some nice artifacts (toys, itiyadi) from 2,600 BCE and before. There are also some excavations taking place on a mound nearby! Also worth visiting!

Other places around to visit are Anandpur Sahib! Langar there is perhaps not so good as Bangla Sahib but still great! Khalsa Heritage Memorial Complex can also be combined with that! Then there is the Bhakra Nangal Dam!
Rajesh ji,

Sri Kalyanraman ji had mentioned specifically to look for Geographical features where Satlaj turns sharp west, alluding to tectonic shifts. Did you notice anything obvious?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_23700 »

RajeshA wrote: Thank you sir for considering me for Harvard. It is one of my dreams to spit in Witzel's coffee!
RajeshA

It would be beneath your status to do this to Shri Witzel. Indologist are, figuratively speaking of course, are digging their own graves. Every new word uttered or written by them is equal to another centimeter of additional depth. Remember someone mentioned Kuhn in this thread and why Kuhn thinks lousy theories are discarded, in spite of politics and dogma attached to them.

I suggest you visit other areas of Harvard; they are doing some cool stuff and not go towards Department of Sanskrit. In any case, it is not easy to find the latter.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

RajeshA wrote: Thank you sir for considering me for Harvard. It is one of my dreams to spit in Witzel's coffee!
for that all you have to do is work in a nearby Starbucks.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

There is the sangam of Ganga Yamuna saraswati. The question is did the dried up Saraswati join the Ganga Yamuna junction in a symbolic way, or did Yamuna shift, carrying the Saraswati with it?I
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

KLP Dubey has a powerful argument and it squares with what little I know.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

From all the data here in this page and few back, I can say, there was big geological and meteorological events happened like Earth shifts [like the major gravitational one - happening now near south america], or tectonic plate shift and collapse of few hills in the himalayas, changing the direction of river flows, etc. If we can co-relate the stories to these events, it would be fantastic.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

I appreciate the great efforts of the OIT and anti-PIE theorists. The problem is that you are fighting the AIT/PIE on *its* turf, and moreover a debate based on trying to find history and geography in the RV will continue FOREVER unless one side gives up.
Dubey ji, I completely agree, the more you go about interpreting Vedas, the more you get into arguments with people who don't agree with your interpretation similar to a person caught in quagmire. Hence this 'argument, counter-argument, counter-counter-argument' alluded by arjun ji taking place will continue. It is in AIT camp's interest to interpret Vedic corpus as a bunch of hymns and songs sung on their journey to India. As you said, we have to reject it en-mass the argument that Vedic corpus is a historic document.

I was of the view that we Indians collectively hold that Vedic corpus was passed on from many generations verbally and that they weren't composed to begin with. Now at one point of time, they might have been recorded and preserved in text form. Now if one assumes that Vedic Corpus or Rg Veda can be dated, the best date you can come to is the time when it was given the textual form. What if many verses are lost by the time the Vedic corpus took textual form? and also what if the composers themselves interpreted the meaning and put it in textual form? no one knows. The mention of various entities can be symbolic as Bji said many pages back, it is just one person's interpretation against another.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Relevance to thread: Can Vedas be used to study history?

KLP Dubey ji,

I am sorry for my previous critical post! I now understand your reasoning better.
KLP Dubey wrote:
RajeshA wrote:Was there ever a time when the Vedas were understood? If yes, by whom? If no, who would be able to understand in the future if not humans?
Answer to that: I don't know. Nobody does. I hope you have some understanding of Indian philosophy and the concept of "dharma", which pertains to preservation and attempts to understand the significance the Vedic sounds. It is emphatically clear in Vedic philosophy that "dharma" is not something that is already achieved (bhUta) but that which is to be continually strived for (bhavishyat).
It is actually because nobody truly understands the Vedas, that people develop their own theories!
KLP Dubey wrote:The Rg Veda (and indeed the Rgvedic sounds) are eternal, have no authors*, are impersonal, and have no specific connection to, nor any interest whatsoever in, to the human race or cultures. The roots of Vedic are not of human agency and their true meanings are unknown.
....

The Veda has prevailed and it always will. Please help in the right way, and not in wrong (although well-intentioned) ways.
If I may, I have a different view of Vedas eternal nature.

I think that the Vedas natural language is indeed Sanskrit, because the phonetic of Sanskrit is the natural sound of intelligence in the universe!

The meaning of Vedas is crystal clear for anybody and everybody whose Ātman is in sync with Paramatma and has the wisdom of a rishi!

The Vedas are also eternal in the sense that it is the intelligence of the universe, or Saraswati, speaking to the rishi, and this Saraswati does every day of her husband Brahma's day!

Every day of Brahma, somewhere in the universe there appears a Surya with the right Prithvi on which evolution takes place until intelligent humanoids evolve. When on a continent quite similar to Bharat the humanoids have evolved far enough to sense their Ātman, then Saraswati starts speaking to these humanoids. Over the duration of a Satyug, Saraswati speaks the Vedas and the humanoid rishis hear the Vedas and the history on this continent during Satyug manifests and unfolds each time in a similar way. For the Saraswati it is her daily ritual!

When the chant of the Vedas is over by Saraswati, from then onward history takes its course according to its own mood, every time somewhat differently. From then onward there is no interference or guidance! The first chant of the Saraswati may be over but the rishis can hear the echoes of the first chant any time they so wish, but the first chant is dutifully recorded!

It is for a purpose that Saraswati undertakes this daily ritual. With this ritual Dharma is established for the intelligent beings in the universe! The less intelligent and matter follow their own Dharma, which is pre-programmed into them, but for the intelligent humanoids, this Dharma has to be spoken out. The Vedas are the ignition key for civilization in general!

As said one can always hear the Vedas in the cosmic background, but it is never so clear as the first chant by Saraswati, and hence it is important to record it, and the Brahmins do just that!

This Dharma needs to be established, so that intelligence receives some guidance and the necessary conditions are created for Vishnu to take his avatars!

On this day of Brahma, we Indians on this Prithvi have been blessed with the opportunity to be the hearers of Saraswati's first chant! On this day of Brahma, we Indians on this Prithvi have been blessed with the opportunity to play this Satyug Lila - the history which accompanies the daily chant of Saraswati!

As one says, history repeats itself! So does the Vedas once every day ... of Brahma!

So in my view it is not that the Vedas does not contain any information on the history of India, it is that the Vedas constitutes the history of every Aryavarta that has arisen on some planet once every day of Brahma in his life of every Brahma that ever existed or will ever exist!

There were Sudasa and Devodasa in each of the iterations! As we know there have also been many Indras!

That is why the Vedas are eternal! They are to be preserved being the first chant by Saraswati for that day of Brahma! They are in the natural language of intelligence! They are both the witness and the script of the history of Vāc Satyuga!

For the sci-fi geeks it would be easy to understand this as Mirror Universes, where partly history runs similarly! Only one needs to consider this both in multiverse and cyclic senses!

That is my view of the Vedas and I think the Vedas are both eternal but also gives the correct reflection of history of a period! Vedas are eternal in their cyclicity as well!

And so I think we need to look at the Vedas to understand our history, but also the history of other worlds if we so wish!
Last edited by RajeshA on 26 Aug 2012 02:48, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

The only question I have is are vedas discovered or given [like axioms]?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

The only question I have is are vedas discovered or given [like axioms]?
Kumarila Bhatta one of the best mimamsa philosophers who demolished Buddhist school took vedas to be pramaana and also as the source of every other philosophy including Buddhist, he was very critical of nastika school of Buddhists for not crediting vedas even though their philosophical school too ultimately rests of the precepts of the vedas. Pramaana-> something that is fundamental and basic element of truth and from which inferences can be made about concept under consideration. Vedic philosophers of the yore didn't consider Vedic corpus as a historic document by no means the way present AIT theorists understand and use. So it is an axiomatic work of some sort.
Last edited by member_22872 on 26 Aug 2012 05:48, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

Dear RajeshA,
RajeshA wrote:If I may, I have a different view of Vedas eternal nature.
Thanks for your post. You are entitled to your view. There are a large number of statements in your post that I was not able to piece together coherently. But here are my comments:

Your views appear to be a combination of what is mentioned in the Vedanta and the Puranas.

Regarding the meaning of the Veda being known to certain persons, your statement is essentially what Vedanta says. Remember that when the Vedantics talk about the "Veda", they mean the Upanishads. They have nothing to do directly with the Rgveda. Vedanta's central achievement is the finding that there is a "ajAta" (birthless, i.e., eternal) entity called Brahman which is the substratum of the universe. This result can be derived from the Upanishads alone and is a fine result of human intellectual endeavor. Shankara has correctly stated that the realization of brahman does not require a reference to the Samhita (the "real" Veda).

However they are at a loss to describe this entity named Brahman, and not surprisingly, since pramanas such as perception and inference can take one only so far. The only pramana that can establish the nature of Brahman, is "shabda", i.e. testimony, specifically the Vedic testimony. As a matter of rationally established fact, the eternal sounds of the Veda alone are Brahman. There is nothing else.

The Universe itself is nothing but a "Linguistic" entity comprised of the Vedic Words. Matter, Energy, etc have no separate existence outside of these Words. The Vedic Word itself breathes forth everything that there is.

In that sense, we already "know" the Veda because we are also part of it (in the sense of Vedanta). But we do not understand the Laws/Rules of Nature encoded in these Words, in other words we do not know the "meanings".

As for the Veda simultaneously being eternal and historical, I have to say that is really a rational impossibility. The sounds of the Veda are pre-determined and fixed, whereas history is not pre-determined.

You may argue (as did others) that if the Veda is breathing forth the Universe, then perhaps history can also be pre-determined. However, it is very important to understand that the overall effect of the Laws of Nature CANNOT be claimed to be "predictably deterministic". In order words, even though the result of a particular Rule can indeed be assumed to be definite, we cannot predict what the results of an overall "creative effort" will be. There are several reasons for this, three prime reasons being:

(1) in order to make a claim that the Vedic Word deterministically creates the spatiotemporal (i.e. historical) Universe, we would have to know the the Laws of Nature in the first place. We don't.

(2) The order/sequence and strength/extent of application of multiple Rules is not known a priori.

(3) The Laws of Nature by definition must represent all possible creations. If the "same" creation was occurring in every "cycle", then this would limit the scope of these laws, and therefore they could not be eternal and universal.

In Mimamsa, this problem is dealt with in the context of Yajnas. Is the result of a particular Vedic injunction pre-determined or not ? The answer is that it yields a definite result in the future (termed as "apurva"), which is due to the action of the verbs upon the nouns. Please note here that the Vedic words themselves have the power to produce certain results. If the meaning of either the noun or the verb (or both) is unclear to the person performing the Yajna, then the result cannot be predicted in advance (although it will occur). However, the *sum total* of all Vedic injunctions supports and sustains the Universe, and in that sense we do not have to worry about the overall results as long as we are practising all the injunctions.

The argument for non-historical nature of the Veda is developed very clearly in Mimamsa. Particularly in the work of Kumarila, in the Slokavartika and the Tantravartika. These have to be carefully read and digested in order to convince oneself of their correctness.

A good introduction to Kumarila:

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kumaa ... eApuNatSel

To specifically identify the eternal, impersonal, and universal Veda with some events occurring in a corner of the earth, is not supported by reason. Of course it is possible that somebody in history has associated these words with earthly objects, and that act of association does have a historical significance. However, to use that possibility in a practical manner one needs an independent testimony confirming that association. Please note that in such cases the only admissible proof is testimony (not inferences, comparisons etc). Such testimony unfortunately does not exist.

A caveat that, just like the Vedanta talks about the Upanishads, when the Mimamsa talks about "the Veda" it is usually focused on the Brahmanas. However, the first pada of the first adhyaya of Jaimini's Mimamsasutra fully clarifies that the eternality of the Vedas includes the Samhita. There would be no point of planning elaborate Yajnas if the Samhita recited in them were not eternal. Thereafter the Samhita is not discussed much (barring a few exceptions) since, like the Vedanta, the Mimamsa also does not know the "meaning" of the Rgveda.

Namaskar,

KL
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

:) Dubey ji interesting that you too picked Kumarila...nice.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RamaY »

Pramana = correct notion / standard / Science of knowledge / means of acquiring certain knowledge.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

SaiK wrote:The only question I have is are vedas discovered or given [like axioms]?
The Veda is an axiom and is one of the pramanas (admissible sources of knowledge). In mimamsa such assumptions are taken to be intrinsically valid unless proven otherwise/falsified. So far nothing has ever emerged that falsifies the axiom.

On the other hand, if it is assumed that the Veda is an authored work composed in India at a particular time in the last few thousand years, and that its meanings are the same as those used in the Sanskrit language, then many inconsistencies arise. The meaning of the Veda using the humanly-created Sanskrit meanings leads to a ludicrous document that contains physically impossible statements, objects, and actions that have never been observed anywhere on earth, much less in India.

KL
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

venug wrote:Dubey ji interesting that you too picked Kumarila...nice.
Venu-g,

:) No Indian wishing to conduct an Ethical Inquiry can be ignorant of Kumarila. One of the posters (I think it may have been you) mentioned on the first few pages of this thread, that the reason for all this AIT/PIE bunkum is that Indians have lost mastery over the Vedas. That is indeed correct. Researchers and scholars in India are not equipped with the means of conducting Ethical Inquiry, which is the stupendous contribution of philosophers like Kumarila. The battle with the Buddhists reveals clearly how the Ethical and Upright persons should deal with Perverts and Frauds.

Of course there is a legend that Kumarila himself studied incognito in a Boodist monastery, hence perhaps some of the OIT-rakshaks should pick up a PhD under nitWit or other similar person. :rotfl:

KL
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

KLP Dubey wrote:
I appreciate the great efforts of the OIT and anti-PIE theorists. The problem is that you are fighting the AIT/PIE on *its* turf, and moreover a debate based on trying to find history and geography in the RV will continue FOREVER unless one side gives up. Do you not see that the AIT/PIE folks have a vested interest in keeping this going? It's what enables them to keep cranking out crap papers in low-impact journals, get some funding, infect students with the same disease, keep "the field" going, etc.

Bring the battle to *our turf* and see how quickly these guys lose and die. The first step is to conclusively disprove and reject the absurd theory that it is possible to find history, geography, and human culture in the Rgveda. The framework for doing that is already there in Mimamsa and Vedanta and it has successfully defeated many others (e.g., NV, Sankhya, Buddhists, etc etc) in the past. Especially the Buddhist arguments were extremely powerful, so much more than these puny AIT/PIE jokers. The Veda has prevailed and it always will. Please help in the right way, and not in wrong (although well-intentioned) ways.
Kishen Lal ji. You are not wrong. But I see people like you as occupants of the palace, and I see myself as the chowkidar at the door chasing away dogs, cattle and human riff raff. There is a role for both.

The AIT scholars who have "used" the Rig Veda have as much use for the scriptures as one would have for toilet paper after it is used. Their ONLY interest in the Rig Veda is to give a date to the Sanskrit language. They take a few passages from here and a few passages from there in the Rig Veda to prove that the language corresponds to what they want it to be, so that the age of the language (Sanskrit) is exactly what they want it to be.

In fact they would have been happier without any Sanskrit. Sanskrit is a complication. Theories of European supremacy became well accepted after the 1750s or so and sooner or later they would themselves have discovered the linguistic similarities between European languages. To many "scholars" from Europe the "discovery" of Sanskrit and the fact that it was highly developed AND revealed a link to all Euroepan langauges came as part fascination and part shock. This had nothing to do with the knowledge in the Rig Veda. I am certain that Griffith or Eggeling who spent their entire lives translating Sanskrit understood no more of the philosophical basis of Indian texts than a translator in the UN understands geopolitics. We need not be disrespectful of translators. They have their uses, but they have done a disservice to the texts by translating them with cultural ignorance (and therefore cultural insensitivity) and from a western 18th or 19th century perspective - in the language of "ancient half-wit savages" who are expected to kill one's own pet horse if it didn't rain yesterday.

This insensitive translation (which unfortunately we idiotic English speaking Macaulayite Indians also read) is open to misinterpretation of the context in which horse sacrifice is mentioned in the Rig Veda. Once the Rig Veda gets translated into garbage, that garbage is smeared on Indians and any other convenient target as long as it serves the purpose of justifying the tenure of some moron or other in some university.

If there is a "fight" at all here, that fight has little to do with the Rig Veda itself, but the "fakery" and bluff that starts form cooking up languages, timelines and using faulty and culturally ignorant translations of the Rig Veda to further a personally glorifying agenda by dating languages to a particular era. People are welcome to wank off as they like as long as they don't spray us in India. That spray needs to be deflected.
Last edited by shiv on 26 Aug 2012 07:27, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

One of the things that I would like to point out about western scholarship is that long before the sciences developed and froze the concepts of accuracy, documentation, proof, repeatability, falsifiability etc human studies revolved around language, philosophy, theology, law and rhetoric. These are in fact the exact subjects that are taught at the Islamic universities that create Ayatollahs and Imams, the high priests of Islam. The black cloak worn by graduates in Western universities (yes, in the US too) was borrowed from these Islamic predecessors, and long before science was established, western scholars too studied the same things - language, philosophy, history rhetoric etc.

Anyone who spends time reading the Pakistan and Islamism threads will know that mullahs are extremely effective communicators whose use of rhetoric is remarkable. It was science that killed rhetoric but I find that linguists apply less science and more rhetoric. Historically the study of language and rhetoric probably went hand in hand so linguists are great rhetoricians. Is it any surprise that command of language is a pre requisite for being a lawyer and lawyers become politicians? And the lawyers black coat/cloak come from the same Islamic predecessors

I keep mentioning rhetoric because it is the single biggest hurdle to knowledge. It might be great for lawyers fighting cases, but in the spread of knowledge it is a hindrance. One of the most common and classic tactics of rhetoric is to build up elaborate strawmen so that people start arguing about the straw man while the main agenda gets through. Wendy Doniger, Martha Nussbaum, Witzel and Arundhati Roy are all past masters in the use of rhetoric. The language and culture of science are built in such a way that controversy and disagreement are allowed and diversionary tactics and straw men are dismissed at the outset. Clearly that is not so in linguistics, archaeology and other specialities that rely on guesswork to a greater or lesser extent.

An example of a straw man would be for me to say "Rajesh presented a fake degree to try and get a linguistics position at Oxford University and he has been on the warpath ever since" This puts Rajesh in a "Have you stopped beating your wife?" situation. If he responds to the accusation he will expend himself fighting an accusation and lose sight of the primary goal. If he does not respond to the accusation, it will be stated that he accepts it. Straw men divert the battle away from the point that needs attention and cause people to waste time and effort on chasing and fighting windmills.

In the case of AIT, "No horse and chariot in India but Horse and chariot present in Rig Veda ", "Horse present but not caballus", River mentioned/not mentioned, cities not mentioned, Griffiths and Eggeling should be respected for spending lives translating (diverting the topic away from mistranlation) are all straw men.

By getting caught up in these deliberately manufactured straw-man side controversies and arguing about the Rig Veda it is easy to lose track of the primary goal of these people and that is to fix a date on the Sanskrit language. I personally have no problem with their fixing a date as long as they do not resort to lies and bluff about the Rig Veda. It is the dating method that is fake and the date too could be wrong. But currently AIT Nazi theories depend critically on the dating of Sanskrit by raping Rig Veda.

In fact I would not worry about genetic findings that show people migrating into India between 1500 and 1200 BC. It proves nothing about Sanskrit. As I said earlier, if India already had an Indo European langauge and in later centuries more Indo European speakers migrated into India even as conquerors, the superstrate language, substrate language and adstrate if any would all be Indo European onlee. Sanskrit could be a creole of Indo-European+Indo-European. The fact that someone brought a horse to Mahomet in 600 AD does not mean that the same person brought revelation to Mahomet. And despite a history of migrations, Sanskrit remains nearly 100% "Indo European". The language is likely very old and documents history in a way that is inconveneint to linguists who are trying to cook up a history of European langauges

It is likely that the dating of Sanskrit is wrong. The rape of the Rig veda to cook up that dating is a convenient tool to use to show how the dating is fake. If the AIT falls or survives - I wouldn't give a rats's ass as long as accuracy and truth are mainatined
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

shiv wrote:One of the things that I would like to point out about western scholarship is that long before the sciences developed and froze the concepts of accuracy, documentation, proof, repeatability, falsifiability etc human studies revolved around language, philosophy, theology, law and rhetoric.

---------------------------------------------------------------------

It is likely that the dating of Sanskrit is wrong. The rape of the Rig veda to cook up that dating is a convenient tool to use to show how the dating is fake. If the AIT falls or survives - I wouldn't give a rats's ass as long as accuracy and truth are mainatined
BravuRAH! Great post. To the point.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

Dear Shiv,
shiv wrote:Kishen Lal ji. You are not wrong. But I see people like you as occupants of the palace, and I see myself as the chowkidar at the door chasing away dogs, cattle and human riff raff. There is a role for both.
First of all I do not agree with your "mahal-wallah" versus "chowkidar" characterization. We are both looking at the same problem. I am not writing posts on esoteric issues that are tangential to the OIT/AIT question.

My specific point has always been one and the same, i.e. the Rgveda is eternal and impersonal, and cannot be used for historical claims.
The AIT scholars who have "used" the Rig Veda have as much use for the scriptures as one would have for toilet paper after it is used. Their ONLY interest in the Rig Veda is to give a date to the Sanskrit language. They take a few passages from here and a few passages from there in the Rig Veda to prove that the language corresponds to what they want it to be, so that the age of the language (Sanskrit) is exactly what they want it to be.
That is indeed true, but much of what I read in this thread on RV-based "dating" seems to suggest that in the opinion of OIT folks, the AIT folks are making "methodological errors", "being sloppy", etc. In other words, it is implied that someone else (e.g. our OIT friends) can do a "better job" of RV-based dating of historical phenomena such as the age of the Sanskrit language.

My point is that RV-based dating of any historical phenomenon is impossible. First of all, the Indians have already developed and finalized the rationally and logically unassailable fact that the sounds of the RV are eternal and impersonal with no connection to the human race. Second, the very idea that one can take Sanskrit meanings and use them in the Rgveda to interpret it, and then turn around and use that interpretation to "date" the Sanskrit language itself, makes no logical sense at all. It is a fallacy.

It can't be done, so the Rgveda has to disappear from the entire AIT/OIT debate. My guess is that if we take away the RV (as we must in deference to the dictates of reason and logic), the entire framework of AIT collapses, and a major "rebuild" will be necessary that will take these mofos centuries to accomplish, if at all they can do it.
If there is a "fight" at all here, that fight has little to do with the Rig Veda itself, but the "fakery" and bluff that starts form cooking up languages, timelines and using faulty and culturally ignorant translations of the Rig Veda to further a personally glorifying agenda by dating languages to a particular era. People are welcome to wank off as they like as long as they don't spray us in India. That spray needs to be deflected.
I entirely agree with this. Only exception I want to point out: all "translations" of the RV are "faulty" whether by foreigners like Griffith or Indians like Sayana. Some translations are however "culturally insulting" in addition to the fact of being faulty/incorrect.

The "faultiness" of these translations has to do with the fact that none of them reaches a internally consistent set of meanings for the Vedic words. For example, the use of the Sanskrit meaning "gau = cow" seems to work in some places in the RV, but in other places we find, for example, cows drawing milk from the head of a bird, and drinking water through their feet.

If we had just one internally consistent interpretation, it would be a good start.

Another way to pose the problem:

Given:

1) The vedic words
2) The set of vedic roots and grammatical rules deduced by the Indians by observation of the Vedic words
3) For reference, the "catalog" of "meanings" suggested in nighantu and nirukta

Find:

A fully consistent set of meanings for all the Vedic words.

This boils down to "a system trying to understand itself". Somebody told me that Turing and Godel have worked on such problems. I haven't looked into that yet.

Best Wishes,

KL
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

KLP Dubey wrote: Only exception I want to point out: all "translations" of the RV are "faulty" whether by foreigners like Griffith or Indians like Sayana. Some translations are however "culturally insulting" in addition to the fact of being faulty/incorrect.

The "faultiness" of these translations has to do with the fact that none of them reaches a internally consistent set of meanings for the Vedic words. For example, the use of the Sanskrit meaning "gau = cow" seems to work in some places in the RV, but in other places we find, for example, cows drawing milk from the head of a bird, and drinking water through their feet.

If we had just one internally consistent interpretation, it would be a good start.
This is exactly what I mean when I called Griffiths and Eggelings translations as "culturally insenstive translations" . For saying this I was told by ManishH that Eggeling spent a lifetime translating Sanskrit and that I am saying these things only because he is a westerner. This is what I mean by rhetoric being used to create strawmen to take the focus off the point that is being made.

I am no Rig Veda scholar, but my upbringing and life have exposed me to various aspects of the world and life as set by followers of Vedic tradtion and have some innate sense about the culturally appropriate sense in which the Vedas are viewed in india by Indians. Not only do I see an absence of that sense in the translations, I am half amused and half angered by the way in which those mistranslations have now eneterd mainstream linguistics and archaeology in the west as accepted wisdom. For saying this I get accused of xenophobia.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_20317 »

Nilesh ji, please do use the following study while you work on the rivers w.r.t. the Ramayana book. This helps since this allows us to understand what could have happened as between Yamuna, Ganga, Saraswati, Monsoon and LGM. Though this study is about Ganga only but then your theory about Yamuna migrating may be challenged from the POV of the accounting aspects for extra waters in Ganga too. This could provide you with some upper bound for time period of the river course change else if the evidences clash then it could take the whole story much - much beyond :) OTOH it is a GoI, DST study (carries the establishment chaap with it)

I do not have this study as such with me and would love to be educated by somebody about it. My earlier 2-3 posts were specifically based on the following para from the Gist present on the net w.r.t. this study. Because of this one para i was working under the assumption that something had happened between 20000 ybp to 10000 ybp. Surely if my assumption is wrong from Archeoastronomy POV then could be that we have to find a period even before that.
The valley-margin area at Bithur contained an active floodplain prior to the Last Glacial Maximum (LGM, ~20, 000 years ago), a period known for large ice sheets in many parts of the world and a much lower sea level (~120m lower than the present-day level). Although no ice cover formed in the humid Ganga plains nor did sea level changes affected this region, the LGM period records a major reduction in discharge of the Ganga river due to decrease in monsoonal strength and, as a result, the floodplains at Bithur were ‘detached' from the main river. Lacustrine (backswamp) and eolian deposits continued to accumulate at the valley margin. The radiocarbon age of ~21, 000 years from the upper parts of the cliff suggests that this phase continued through most of the LGM and later.


"research project at IIT Kanpur sponsored by the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, we conducted a detailed study of the Ganga river around Bithur"

http://www.iitk.ac.in/infocell/iitk/new ... week51.htm
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

shiv wrote:The language and culture of science are built in such a way that controversy and disagreement are allowed and diversionary tactics and straw men are dismissed at the outset. Clearly that is not so in linguistics, archaeology and other specialities that rely on guesswork to a greater or lesser extent.
Archeology may be getting undue blame that should perhaps be directed at philology.

Archeology is a science in that it derives history and dates from actual evidence of artifacts and bones, using radio-carbon and other authentic dating techniques. Conclusions are typically derived from the bones and artifacts actually found - rather than what they have not yet been able to dig up.

The horse and chariot evidence so beloved of AIT is philological evidence. Philology is the study of literary texts for the purpose of understanding history. Its the philologists who, through the study of the RV, claim that horse and chariot are key markers of RV society...And jump to the untenable conclusion that absence of archeological evidence is evidence of absence.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Arjun wrote:
shiv wrote:The language and culture of science are built in such a way that controversy and disagreement are allowed and diversionary tactics and straw men are dismissed at the outset. Clearly that is not so in linguistics, archaeology and other specialities that rely on guesswork to a greater or lesser extent.
Archeology may be getting undue blame that should perhaps be directed at philology.

Archeology is a science in that it derives history and dates from actual evidence of artifacts and bones, using radio-carbon and other authentic dating techniques. Conclusions are typically derived from the bones and artifacts actually found - rather than what they have not yet been able to dig up.

The horse and chariot evidence so beloved of AIT is philological evidence. Philology is the study of literary texts for the purpose of understanding history. Its the philologists who, through the study of the RV, claim that horse and chariot are key markers of RV society...And jump to the untenable conclusion that absence of archeological evidence is evidence of absence.
True - but of late I am seeing refs of archaeologists using linguistics related garbage to fill their potsherds with meaning. Shri Anthony is a classic case - and we saw a few pages ago an article in which Shri David Anthony and one Shri Atkinson accusing each other of things like "hand-wavy" theories and such. Anthony misquotes earlier mistranslations of the Rig Veda in his book, adding insult to injury.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

When AIT/AMT-backers say there is archeological evidence to back their theory - I think they are trying to get the benefit of the positive connotations associated with archeology. Dating of historical events through radiometric and other methods has made the study of ancient artifacts a lot more scientific....This false positive connotation needs to be denied to them. The horse and chariot argument is NOT archeological - it is philological.

Some archeologists, like Anthony, may in keeping with the trend towards 'cross disciplinary' work - be using philological arguments...but I would tend to think traditional archeologists would be far more circumspect about deriving conclusions from the absence of datable artifacts, rather than focusing on the ones found. Most Indian archeologists don't support AMT.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Virendra »

If Yamuna was just a tributary to the mighty Sarasvati before moving east, I don't see why it would be necessary to mention her if the main river is mentioned already.
And by the way, wasn't the period before 8,000 BC covered in last Ice age. How many glacial and non glacial rivers could have been there then?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

An Indian Tale

Mr. Sharma used to live peacefully and happily with his beloved wife, Sundari in his village. Needless to say, Sundari was extremely beautiful. One day along came Mr. Richard, otherwise also known as Dick, driving by in his BMW! He saw Sundari and was dumbstruck. His own wife Betty looked mediocre in front of Sundari! He decided there and then, he wanted to have her no matter how long it takes!

So he plotted to get her! He first took Mr. Sharma in employment and established a master servant relationship with him, thus placing himself higher than Mr. Sharma. Over time he started treating Mr. Sharma alternatively shabbily and sometimes humoring him. Thus Mr. Sharma developed a complex in which, it became important for him what Mr. Dick thought of him. Mr. Sharma became submissive and ever willing to appease Mr. Dick.

Mr. Dick was often invited to Mr. Sharma's home and Mr. Dick got to see Sundari more often and get to know her better. Even when Mr. Dick used to praise Sundari for her looks, Mr. Sharma used to feel happy that he received a compliment for having such a beautiful wife. In time, Mr. Dick had learned enough about Sundari and her likes and dislikes and what she found pleasing! He found out from which village she came and how her dead parents were called.

Then Mr. Dick started taking photos of Mr. Sharma and Sundari together. Then he went home and using his Photoshop, removed Mr. Sharma from the photos. Mr. Dick also bought himself a special software with which one can make people look older or younger. He used the software to make Sundari look like a young girl of 8. He then took his own photos from his childhood when he was around 9 and integrated both the photos, so that it looked like as if Mr. Dick and Sundari were photographed when they were quite young.

Once he had all he wanted, he started telling Mr. Sharma that if he wants the job, Mr. Sharma would have to do something about his appearance. His clothes were old-fashioned and basically if he didn't do something about it, the whole company would get a bad name, and customers may start going elsewhere. It was bad enough that Mr. Sharma was not the best looking guy and used to do sloppy work, but at least he should wear good clothes. Mr. Sharma should look more like him, modern and sharp. Mr. Sharma obeyed and got himself some new clothes stitched. Then Mr. Dick started asking Mr. Sharma to come with him to the bar. Mr. Sharma who had never drunk before was hesitant at first but with time he developed a special fondness for Sex on the Beach and other cocktails. One day Mr. Dick after a visit to the bar took Mr. Sharma along with him to the brothel. Mr. Sharma was drunk and he had no strength to resist the temptation of hot girls giving him a lap-dance and offering much more. Mr. Dick told him, he should go ahead and that he will pick up the tab.

Next day, Mr. Sharma when he came to his senses it dawned on him what he had done. He loved his wife and he had betrayed her trust. He could not see her in the eye any more and started keeping his distance from her. A few days later, Mr. Dick again told Mr. Sharma to come along to the bar. Mr. Sharma had a guilty conscience and any alcohol which could help him forget his misery was welcome. This time again Mr. Dick took Mr. Sharma to the brothel. By now Mr. Sharma had simply decided to switch off his conscience and to enjoy himself.

Within two months, Mr. Sharma had started acting weirdly in Sundari's presence and used to lose his temper for the slightest of reasons. Instead of feeling guilty he had decided to lash back at Sundari, telling her how ugly she was. This was his way of explaining to himself why he went to the brothel.

At work too Mr. Dick started scolding Mr. Sharma and telling him what a slow worker he was, and how ugly he looked, and that he was not fit to have a wife such as Sundari. Due to his job Mr. Sharma took all this silently with his head down. Mr. Dick was still telling Mr. Sharma that despite his modern clothes Mr. Sharma still made an impression of a village buffoon, and no matter how much he tried, Mr. Sharma would remain substandard. In fact, Mr. Sharma was so shaken with all this abuse that himself started thinking that Sundari was the reason why he was seen as uncultured. This caused him to be even more angry at Sundari! Sundari was naturally very unhappy and felt miserable!

That day Mr. Dick went over to the marketplace where Sundari used to buy her vegetables. He saw Sundari there and acted as if it was simply a chance meeting. He asked her how everything was going! Sundari was almost in tears. Mr. Dick understood that that was the right moment. He walked along with her and asked her to tell him what was bothering her! Sundari confided everything to him - how Mr. Sharma had started acted weirdly and asked if he had too much stress at work. Mr. Dick told her, he will try to find out and that they should meet again.

Thus Dick and Sundari started meeting every now and then. First the topic was Mr. Sharma, but soon Mr. Dick started telling her other stories, about himself and doing other small-talk. He shared some tales with her and a few jokes as well. After all Mr. Dick was a real charmer! Sundari enjoyed her conversations with Mr. Dick!

One day, Mr. Dick told her that his parents came from the same village as her, and to his surprise he found out recently that Mr. Dick's father and Sundari's dead father had agreed to marry the two when they were older. Sundari of course at first did not believe him. Then Mr. Dick showed her a couple of photos of the two together standing and playing together when the two were young. Of course they were the doctored ones. Sundari was then really taken aback, how can it be, as she could not remember the guy! Mr. Dick persisted that actually both used to like each other very much, but then his father got transferred and he with his parents moved away to a far away town, and they lost touch. He even made a show of it that he is sad, that she had forgotten him! Then Mr. Dick told Sundari that actually she belonged to him and that he loved her.

Sundari was in a quarry. For some time Mr. Sharma had started keeping his distance from her. On the other hand she was reminded of her life in her village when she was carefree and happy. And Mr. Dick, even though she couldn't remember him, was reminding her of the good old times. And all that strong courting from Mr. Dick was also causing a little flutter in her heart.

Next week, Mr. Dick sent Mr. Sharma on an assignment to a far off town for a week. That week love blossomed between Sundari and Mr. Dick and Mr. Dick was high with the joy of victory. He had nailed Sundari.

When Mr. Sharma came back Sundari told him that she was leaving him as the love between them was over. She also showed him the photos of her with Mr. Dick from her youth and told Mr. Sharma that their marriage was not valid anyway, as she had already been promised to Mr. Dick. She packed her bags and left!

Mr. Dick arranged a flat for Sundari. When Sundari started insisting on a formal marriage, Mr. Dick explained to her that a divorce from Betty was out of the question as a divorce would ruin his financial stability, but he would care for Sundari as he loved her more! Of course that was just lies!

Mr. Dick just wanted to screw Sundari and we was getting that without any commitments! Sundari relented and had to satisfy herself with her secondary status.

Mr. Sharma on the other hand simply sits in his bedroom and cries! And when he has cried enough, he goes to sleep putting off the lights! After all, he has to get up early in the morning to go to work. If he is late, Mr. Dick may get angry!

That is the AIT story!
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Murugan »

Rajeshji

Sundar story. Good way to tell people in the office about AIT and condition of desi mind.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

1. What proof is there that there were people in North India before 1500 BC?
2. What proof is there that they spoke any language at all?

Maybe the first people to come to India were from Central Asia, bringing horses and language
A_Gupta
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

shiv wrote:1. What proof is there that there were people in North India before 1500 BC?
2. What proof is there that they spoke any language at all?

Maybe the first people to come to India were from Central Asia, bringing horses and language

There are enough archaeological remains to show that there were people. Language can only be inferred, in the absence of written artifacts.

E.g., wiki says

One of the earliest Neolithic sites in India is Lahuradewa, at Middle Ganges region, C14 dated around 7th millennium BC.[7]. Recently another site near the confluence of Ganges and Yamuna rivers called Jhusi yielded a C14 dating of 7100 BC for its Neolithic levels.[8]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_Asian_Stone_Age
Last edited by A_Gupta on 26 Aug 2012 20:12, edited 1 time in total.
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