Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

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A_Gupta
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

shiv wrote:The only reason anyone has any idea what the hell the Hurrians spoke was that the Hurrian kingdom was occupied by the so called "Mitanni kings" around 1500. One Mitanni king exchanged several letters with an Egyptian Pharaoh - written in cuneiform letters on tablets. This has later been deciphered and shown to be basically Sanskrit or a dialect closely related to Sanskrit.
No. Some of the names are shown to be Sanskrit in origin.

Some 13 or 14 languages of the Middle East were written in cuneiform.
Hurrian, linguistically not related to Sumerian and Akkadian, is attested in the ancient Near East from ca. 2300 BCE to around 1000 BCE. Hurrian became the spoken and written language of the kingdom of Mittani, a powerful state emerging in northern Syria from approximately the middle of the 2nd millennium BCE until ca. 1300 BCE (WEGNER 2000). Letters in Hurrian from the Mittani king Tušratta, who bears an Indo-Aryan throne name (RAULWING/CLUTTON-BROCK 2009, 69 ff. with fn. 256), to the Egyptian Pharaoh in the late 14th century BCE survived in the archive of Tell el-Amarna in Egypt (MORAN 1992, 41 ff. esp. 63 ff.). Although the spoken language in the Mittani kingdom was Hurrian, a few termini technici belonging an Indo-European language named Indo-Aryan is documented in the ancient Near East in cuneiform records from Ḫattuša, Meskene, Maşat Höyük, Nuzi (the land of Arrapḫa), Alalaḫ, Ugarit as well as in other archives and Egyptian sources of the New Kingdom. The Mittanian capital aššukkanni (with its royal cuneiform archive, as can be assumed) could not be localised geographically yet. The terms In- do-European and Indo-Aryan were coined by modern scholars in the early 19th and early 20th century AD in lack of the absence of genuine terms (FORTSON 2004; KOERNER 1981[82]; WIESEHÖFER 1990). Due to certain linguistic developments, Indo-Aryan represents an older dia- lect than the oldest Sanskrit (Vedic). Indo-Aryan as attested in the ancient Near East and Ve- dic must have been separated before the 16th century B.C. which can serve as a terminus ante quem for that separation. However, Indo-Aryan has neither been introduced from India into the ancient Near East nor has it ever reached India from the ancient Near East; it rather reached the eastern Mediterranean areas in connection with the migration of the Hurrians (for an introductory overview see WILHELM 1989; 1995; KÜHNE 1999). Furthermore, it was not spoken as “a living language” at the time when the (lost) original of the Kikkuli Text has been written, as Johannes FRIEDRICH (1893–1972) pointed out over 80 years ago (1928, 148). In this context, the expres

sion was coined, that the Indo-Aryan termini technici in the Kikkuli Text have been “piously handed down as fossils” (KAMMENHUBER 1968, 18; 1993, 788). The terms “Indo-Aryan” and “Indo-Aryans” are used in this study exclusively within their linguistic definition (MAYRHOFER 1966; 1974; 1982; 2007 and WIESEHÖFER 1990).
Certain hippological terms documented in the Kikkuli Text are undisputed regarding their Indo- Aryan (and not Hittite, Luvian, Sumerian, Akkadian or Hurrian) etymology; among them, Indo- Aryan terms for “rounds” and a term for training field or training area (first pointed out by JEN- SEN 1919). As a surprise, Wolfram VON SODEN (1908–1996), the Nestor of Assyriology in Ger- many in the second half of the 20th century, was able to identify hippological Indo-Aryan terms in the archive of Nuzi (the modern Jorgan Tepe near Kirkuk in Iraq) which indicate colour or age of horses (VON SODEN 1958). These terms build an important part of the Indo-Aryan vocabulary that survived the Kikkuli Text:...
http://www.lrgaf.org/Peter_Raulwing_The ... c_2009.pdf
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Folks, just look at the facts that I (with help from others on this thread) have basically trawled out of the net.

First Geography. You need to recall that Greece sits next to Turkey (Anatolia) and Turkey sits next to Iran (Persia), Iraq and Syria (Babylon in Iraq and Mesopotamia). Here is a map if you need one: http://www.worldatlas.com/webimage/coun ... /memap.jpg

The oldest evidence of ANY European language appears to relate to Greek - with "Old Greek" or Mycenaean Greek being dated to about 1500 BC. Even this date is totally dependent on a 4 cm by 2.5 cm fragment of pottery. Other old languages of Europe are Lithuanian which has words similar to "Old Greek". Celtic languages are old, but again can be dated only to younger than 1000 BC

What is the evidence for Sanskrit? I am talking about archaeological, textual evidence. Not un-datable linguistic "Glottochronology" (or lexicostatistics) where the evolution of languages is given a time frame based on certain assumptions.

Rig Veda - No evidence is available to fix the date of the Rig Veda.

The oldest "text" evidence for anything like Sanskrit are the Mitanni texts of about 1500 BC which are very close to Sanskrit. 1677 BC is associated with the Kassite language. The Kassite language has many words and names that seem to have come from Vedic Sanskrit. Even if the words came by "contact" it means that Vedic Sanskrit existed muich before 1677 BC. (I am going to buy Talageri's book just for this but I digress)

If evidence of Sanskrit exists from Syria (Mesopotamia) in 1700 BC, but Greek came into Greece 200 or more years later there has to be some serious rethinking of dates. And geography.

There is an "Anatolian" hypothesis of language where "Proto-Indo European" (PIE) languages started off in Anatolia (eastern Turkey). This, hypothesis by Renfrew is not well accepted by "mainstream" linguists and historians. But if PIE started in Turkey it reached Greece, just next door in after 1500 BC. How come the same date, 1500 BC is made for Sanskrit 5000 km away in India in India. Already there is evidence of Sanskrit at an earlier date next door in Babylon (Iraq) with the Kassites in 1700-1600 BC.

The Anatolian hypothesis and a related "Armenian" hypothesis for PIE are not generally accepted.

What we talk about in this thread is the "Kurgan hypothesis" (by a lady called Gimbutas) of the origin of "Proto-Indo-European"(PIE) that puts the origins in Central Asia. And as we have seen even this hypothesis has too many holes. It simply does not fit. It is a particularly problematic hypothesis because it revolves around horse bones in central Asia as "proof". Because it depends on horse bones its dates are fixed by the age of those central Asian horse remains. But those fixed dates for PIE are totally useless in explaining how evidence of Vedic Sanskrit was found in Syria and Iraq in 1600 BC while the theory says that the Rig Veda was still being created 5000 km to the east in India by 1500 BC .

i am certain that the Kurgan hypothesis too is off track. It cannot be right.

And I repeat, if it is NOT racism, and if it is NOT fossilization of scholarly thought processes, I cannot for the life of me understand why scholars cannot think about an out of India hypothesis for PIE.
Last edited by shiv on 26 Jun 2012 08:54, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

If anyone is interested, in the interest of being fair, the following is a Wiki page introduction to how and why linguists started playing with dates. Read and judge for yourself the possible uses and chronological accuracy of these techniques.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glottochronology
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

I had suggested earlier, and so had Rajesh, the proposal that a study should be conducted if linguistics can or cannot be used as a valid method of dating languages. It appears that I have found just such a study and a detailed on at that. What the authors of this paper have done is tp take known old and modern eastern European languages and compared glottochronological (lexicostatistical) linguistic prediction of change of languages with reality.

Their conclusions, on page number 331 of this scanned pdf says that the method is prone to errors and cannot be used.
http://www.lllf.uam.es/~clase/acceso_lo ... 1Gloto.pdf

I now need to look for academic papers that say the opposite.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

^^^Glottochronology is widely accepted to be wrong.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

^^^The Anatolian hypothesis is that of Colin Renfrew. His idea is that the Indo-European languages spread as a result of the invention of agriculture. It spread by "demic diffusion" - not by conquest or migration, but simply by virtue of the population explosion of agriculturalists relative to hunter-gatherers.

Since the invention of agriculture was 10,000 years before present or even more, it makes it entirely possible that the Harappa civilization spoke Indo-European languages, even if these languages came from outside India.

The linguists don't like Colin Renfrew's idea (he is an archaeologist). But the Nature paper I cited a few pages ago on this thread, used some linguistic methods to find an agreement with Colin Renfrew's hypothesis.

To me Colin Renfrew's idea makes infinite more sense than the horse&bull stories.

http://languagecontinuity.blogspot.com/ ... hesis.html
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote:^^^Glottochronology is widely accepted to be wrong.
The PIE model based out of horse bones dating seems based totally on glottochronology.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

SaiK wrote:changing faith some 1000 years ago means something!, even in christianity where one would get ostracized and condemned.. forget about abdul land... where one would be sacked and pelted with stones.
Not true saiK ji. Not true. The wars of Europe that finally led to the peace of Westphalia and the separation of Church from state were related to the fact that in Europe - whenever a king changed (by war or conquest) the entire kingdom had to change allegiance to the religion of the king.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote:^^^The Anatolian hypothesis is that of Colin Renfrew.
Thanks will correct my post

And the first few lines of your link tell a story that people on this thread need to know especially if they are impartial in searching for gyan.
http://languagecontinuity.blogspot.in/2 ... hesis.html
For many years, basically until the second half of the 20th century, the study of Indo-European (IE) was exclusively in the hands of linguists. They analyzed ancient languages, devising laws and family trees, and imagined the emergence and expansion of Indo-European as an event which involved a series of massive migrations or invasions occurring (what a coincidence!) a few centuries before the first attested documents written in IE languages. In the 1950s and 60s, the Lithuanian-American archaeologist Marjia Gimbutas provided the archaeological evidence to support the traditional view. Her theory, generally known as the Kurganic Theory, was later developed by other authors, e.g. J P Mallory. It can be summarized as follows: the original homeland of the proto-IE (PIE) speakers was in the Russian steppes; they started to spread into other Eurasian territories between 4000 and 3000 BC.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

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http://languagecontinuity.blogspot.com. ... idows.html
Angela Marcantonio is an expert in Uralic languages. In a series of interesting articles and books (e.g. Marcantonio 2002) she has reviewed some of the traditionally held views on the Uralic family, reaching the conclusion that a Uralic proto-language cannot be reconstructed scientifically. She has also carried out research on other language groups. In a recent article, "Evidence that most Indo-European lexical reconstructions are artefacts of the linguistic method of analysis" (in Marcantonio ed. 2009), she analyses some traditionally held assumptions about PIE, with striking results.

First, she focuses on some of the laws that have been proposed for PIE, and finds that in many cases they might be examples of circular reasoning. To test her hypothesis, she applies a quantitative test to a set of reconstrucetd PIE words (the verbal roots in Rix's dictionary, 1998). The results are as follows: 66% of the recontructed verbs are based on words found in only one or two of the IE branches; only 34 % are attested in three or more branches. On the other hand, it is supposed that the laws governing phonetic change in IE, e.g. Grimm's Law, should be a useful tool to determine these reconstructions. However, these laws are usually modified with a series of secondary laws or refinements, so that there is always some kind of intricately designed new parameter to explain any apparent deviation from the norm. Marcantonio has clearly shown that, when you have a PIE verbal root with forms attested in many IE branches, a high number of laws is needed to account for the whole set. In some cases, the number of forms{roots?} equals the number of laws. This is how the corpus of PIE reconstructions has grown in the last 150 years: by a cumulative amount of laws, many of them designed 'ad hoc'. What is the use of a law, e.g. Grimm's Law, if it is immediately followed by new laws, e.g. Verner's, to make it tenable? Marcantonio sees the adjustable parameters of PIE laws as an indication of circularity.

She also analyses some particular aspects of traditional PIE reconstruction, e.g. the present-perfect alternation. Again, she considers them an example of fabrication of the method of analysis.

Finally, she focuses on the laryngeal set. In her quantitaive analysis, she notices that a high percentage of PIE verb roots and morphemes have been reconstructed with the aid of laryngeals. In her opinion, the use of laryngeals adds some extra flexibility to the system: they are phonetically unspecified and can appear virtually anywhere in a word; they are the perfect solution for any reconstruction, a real magical wand that makes any prediction possible. Marcantonio does not reject the laryngeal theory (she says that this issue is beyond the reach of her present research) but I have the feeling that she is quite convinced that the set of laryngeals is, basically, one more artefact in the hands of those who believe in proto-languages.

So, what is left of PIE if we subtract the poorly attested roots (those found in less than three IE branches) and if we eliminate artificial artefacts like vowel gradation and laryngeals, based on circular reasoning? Maybe PIE is reduced to just a relatively small set of cognate words and an even smaller set of grammatical elements, if any. Maybe it's about time IE scholars started to abandon the idea of perfect proto-languages with their complete sets of phonemes, declensions and conjugations and equipped with immaculate laws that would predict every step from one proto-language to another. Maybe it's time the whole idea of a proto-form with an asterisk were replaced with a different type of notation, one that reflected the complex nature of language rather than an aspiration to immaculate, circularly-proven forms.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by disha »

shiv wrote:i am certain that the Kurgan hypothesis too is off track. It cannot be right.
SIVC had trade relations as far to west as Mesopotamia (confirmed per archeology) and as north as Amy Darya (confirmed per archeology). Interestingly none of the trade relations talk about an "Aryan Invasion".
And I repeat, if it is NOT racism, and if it is NOT fossilization of scholarly thought processes, I cannot for the life of me understand why scholars cannot think about an out of India hypothesis for PIE.
SDREs giving the language to Europe!!! Forget about it. It is funny how the AIT/AMT has moved the aryan homeland from Europe (Germany etc) to Central Europe to Eurasia (Steppes) and now towards BMAC (closer home) but never crosses Indus.

Note: I want to upload some photos showing the trade relations between SIVC/Mesopotamia via Oman (interestingly Oman also has a horse rearing history). How do I attach the photos (or I can send that as an email RajeshA/Shiv to be posted here)
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

disha ji,

I use imageshack.us to upload my photos and then paste a link here. It's quite easy to use. It also allows resizing, etc.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

The reason why AIT/AMT and their horse & pony show sounds shallow is because it focuses mostly on migration and not on trade relations.

According to AIT-Nazis, people moved from place A to place B, and then they take with them all their horses and their memory of horses, and then they become an isolated island somewhere else with no relations with either other people nor with their pre-migration brothers.

It is as if the horse could have come to India only through migration of people and not through some trade relationship.

People were not living on different planets with the vacuum of space in between. They had bustling trade relationships, and horse would have been a prime commodity in big demand.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RajeshA wrote:The reason why AIT/AMT and their horse & pony show sounds shallow is because it focuses mostly on migration and not on trade relations.
Also it was pointing to archaeological remains 2000 km away and saying "Here - that's your grandfather's remains. See? Two arms. Two legs. One skull. More than 1000 years old, so he must be dead and is definitely your grandfather"
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_20317 »

Acharya wrote:
Murugan wrote:Ravi_g,

There is no evidence E in PIE as far as numbers are concerned. till late 400 AD they used M, I, X etc to denote numbers. Now they are MIXin E in PI to feel good.

Indians by that time invented the value of PI

wiki says

In India around 600 BC, the Shulba Sutras (Sanskrit texts that are rich in mathematical contents) treat π as (9785/5568)2 ≈ 3.088.[27] In 150 BC, or perhaps earlier, Indian sources treat π as ≈ 3.1622.[28]

E is insignificant. Whenever you read PIE, think about scam
This is the single biggest evidence to show the falsehood of PIE and how IVC had independent culture and languages without outside inputs. This should be quoted to show how disconnected AIT are from the facts.



Acharya ji namaskar,

The way I see it the history makes sense only when viewed from the Prism of the Mahasankalpa mantra because only then can you explain the relationship between India, Iran, Mittanis and Polytheistic and Sun worshiping Egypt. Without this we will require as may assumptions as there are observations. When you say IVC you know you should have said SIVC. But the reality does not end there.

And in such a scenario an independent culture becomes a rather difficult idea. More like a shared culture across passport boundaries. More like culture of Jumbhudwipa, Bharatvarsha (not just Bharatkhand) that was later subverted by various Malechas and to the subversion of which some of the people within took an active part. With the outsiders (Malechas) of varying times trying to usurp the few treasures that have fallen to the ground away from the owner. Uropeans being the most recent of these.

Allow me to elaborate. Surely Indians have been amongst the most accomplished traders. Indians have had a respect for a good ‘idea’ from very ancient times. Just about every trader would have recognized a great idea the moment he saw one.

I also believe that all this business of AIT/AMT/PIE is really to conjure up some history more specifically a ‘pride worthy history’ for the Uropains esp. those amongst them who are still living in their colonialist past. This becomes important in later part of my write up. Kindly bookmark it for now.

It is purported to be a singular band of warrior poets that created the underlying philosophy of RV and seeded everything in the ‘known world’. The problem with this is it requires the presence of supermen to do that. We may as well believe in 6 ft. dicks instead of the more SDRE 6 in. one that is quite conspicuous by its invisibility and the size of the pants.

More likely explanation is that the people who build up the framework of RV proper build it upon a big body of existing but probably an orally transmitted knowledge and that too of different lineages. Instead of being purely oral it could even have been transmitted via temporarily written medium, like on sand or even by way of using wet chalk/ink/khalli on a wooden board/Paati, used by the kind of people who sit on durries/boris/hessian bags basically everybody in the Indic tradition. Only in such a scenario can you explain the strange sitting together of so many ideas. For this even if you are unable to figure a trading and urban society in RV you still have the crutches of the practicing Sanyaasi or travelling monks to rely upon. Seems to me a pretty valid crutch in the absence of any direct evidence.

Now while a smart work can only result from other smart works, this has one more corollary to it and a very verifiable effect. Such thought process has to get carried into newer works that in turn are based on philosophy extended in and by RV. From ‘not this not this’ to ‘what the **** is it’ to ‘huh nothing’ is a short hop.

The moment you say ‘nothing’ you can experience escape if you are a dumb idiot but not so if you are any good. Because now you have to show how and when to use ‘nothing’. You basically need a whole new philosophy that needs to explain ‘nothing’. The Sagun part is easy. You see and you can experiment with what you observe and convince yourself as to the validity of a system based on it. ‘Nothing’ is not as easy as Sienfeld would have you believe. A complete new alternative is what is required.

Now you need to build up practical maths around ‘nothing’ to be able to make use of it. Only then are people going to be convinced of ‘nothing’. Now ‘nothing’ can be contorted into a ‘blank’ or a ‘zero’. If you substitute your one cow with say a symbol ‘1’ you can live with this observation. You would not be any worse if your ten cows are accounted for as a symbol ‘||||||||||’ (basically tally marks) or even ‘#$@#’ (symbols) or even ‘1_’ or even (1’) (actually used). Zero is really not needed for so much. Ask the Romans. You need it only if you want to some smarter stuff. So Ten/Dus/Deka does not necessarily imply existence of zero. Unfortunately by comparing the existing decimal value terminology with so called PIE numerical terminology the ‘Peer Reviewed Scientific Linguists’ have committed themselves to a new concept. They have left philosophy and poetry behind and embraced maths. Now they ought to know what they are writing and they ought to explain whether Deka means any of the above or if it means ‘10’. Then they should bloody well know whether 10+10 gives ‘20’ or does it give ‘||||||||||||||||||||’ or even ‘#$@##$@#’ or even ‘1_1_’ or even (1’1’) and so on a so forth after every addition of 10.

So you see you cannot really challenge the ‘Peer Reviewed Scientific Linguists’ on Deka with the idea of ‘sunya’. But you can with the idea of notation and system thereof.

OTOH, for the real world of earlier times. They have to prove the validity of their initial ideation by moving on to more complex ideas. It is this, that is sought to be controlled by the ‘Peer Reviewed Scientific Linguists’ and cabalists. You see Acharya ji, not just the RV but every single body of Indian tradition has been ante-dated mostly with entirely zero evidence or the type of evidence that sought to establish some book of RV as being later and some as earlier. Basically by linguistics (to account for SN_Ranjan ji’s sensitivities historical linguistics). When in fact linguistics itself is such a sorry idea that the less said about it the better. Then once you have established the count of ‘nothing’ you also have to establish the shape of ‘nothing’. Shapes are something you see. So you basically cannot avoid it. And slowly and gradually you arrive at other ideas like angles and decimals. Almost everything being intimately interrelated. Now if you observe carefully about the only people who have canonised these works or used them in their religious rituals or ascribed meanings to them are the Buddhists, Jains and Hindus. The rest basically sought to control it and its meaning. I suspect because it was foreign to their equally mature cities and systems of governance.

When I see this rationing of ideas and controlling of thoughts you can rest assured somebody is upto no good. But here in also lies the catch for such people. You see all the controlling and rationing is sought to be done by obfuscating the obvious, under the belief of ‘ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny’. The belief is that if you control the origin you control the future. There are some subsets of people in general who wanted to control the origin in various ways. Sometimes the control was sought by way of ‘The Book’ which stated that the origin was on phalaan-phalaan date. Sometimes it took the form of witch hunts. At times it was manipulation of the books and philosophy of others, a kind of cognoscenti cussing. The ante dating is just one of the ilk.

Unfortunate part for such people is that when you come up with any body of knowledge, it helps you understand yourself too. It basically changes you. You now no longer are the one you were even if you probably were of the same group as the believers of ‘ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny’ to begin with. And once you are changed your offsprings will obviously carry your mutation/meme. So now on the one hand you have a system based on ‘peer review system’ that simply cannot provide for the vagabonds like the average BRF member. OTOH you have an ‘open integrative system’ which implies you pretty much do what you want to and know well that what goes around comes around. Lets call them ‘Lineage M’ and ‘Lineage O’ respectively. This kind of system can easily accommodate the ‘peer review system’ without getting overwhelmed by it and yet spawn new variants of every idea that it accepts, new ideas being essential for the process of integration to grow bigger. The distinction is really more profound in the way each of these systems behaves in the real world. So you have different types of focus in the polity, sciences, laws, mathematics. Basically different ends for different people, that need to be justified by different means. This kind of system will necessarily not get overwhelmed by the continuous process of a differing origin and will not create any anxiety while at the same time people will fight for their unique system, since it is born out of their unique needs. So you see both subsets will create more of their own kind and further their own kind.

Taking if further it implies that if you have a certain kind of maths at one place it is because you had a need for that kind of maths and if you have that kind of maths you will spawn new ideas of the same kind. So that set me thinking. If we place RV before 1900 BC, by the Saraswati River drying up evidence, then surely it should provide new knowledge afterwards that in turn will need to be falsified because the two different lineages would have grown differently by that time. Sure enough you see that. Later on in the story of Pythagoras Theorem you will see just that. Also we have the philosophy of RV we need certain kind of maths for the rituals established by that philosophy which will be different from the rituals of the other kind of philosophy. Sure enough you see that too. Hell you should also see different kinds of meanings ascribed to these rituals. Well that has happened too (evident in the OIT thread between Shiv ji and ManishH ji).

Ok now how does Pythagoras comes in. Well, when you think of shapes you think of bricks for city construction, design of buildings, design of ritual altars. Surely the brick suppliers would have been looking for a ‘cheaper’ brick and the head of the ritual would have been looking for the ‘bestest’ brick. And if complex rituals like Agnicayana / Agnisyena, requiring complex altars like the falcon altar with different kinds of ‘ordinary’ and ‘special’ bricks are any indication then the Pythagoras could easily have been discovered by the Vedics proper because such fire rituals are based on RV hymns and the exposition I believe comes in Satapata Brahmana (1000 BC by Lineage M dating). Now look how the Pythagoras is sought to be hidden.

If you net search for Pythagoras in India. You will find that the reference to Susa tablet 1600 BC is made, which puts the Pythagoras in south Iraq/Iran (Susa to be precise). You will not find anything mentioned after that. Now I strongly doubt if there ever was a real need for measurement of angles in that part of the world. They had cities but then you can have that kinds of cities without need for Pythagoras theorem. You will need a ritualistic & tradition minded people to insist on measurement of angles. But that means Susa and India should have something to do with each other, which is not mentioned in the most obvious net searches. But on deeper net searches you will find the following.


Statement of Pythagoras' theorem (attributed to Pythagoras, 5th Century B.C.) already occurs in the Susa tablet ( 1600 B.C.)

Susa was a slam bang Elamite city (El Kapital). Elamites are polytheistic republicans. Elamites find mention in histories or Greeks, Assyrians, Persians. Seems like even Puranic references to it too. But this seems out of place no? Obviously considering the presentation of the history as several silos that can easily by dealt with (as in digested / propagandized) separately. But the truth is any Indian sitting in Elam (supposedly black Iran) or Iran (supposedly white Iran) would have felt entirely at home, exactly like in he would have felt in any other part of India till the injection of the new culture of ‘Master and slave’ in the Elam and Iranic cultures. In fact to de-personalise the scenario the situation of Elam was the way it was for Tibet. There could actually in essence be 3 different ways of this dissolution:
1) Like the Tibetans who have lost their country to an Imperial force. Elamites were this kind of case and just the way Tibetans got scattered all around so did the Elamities. And just as the majority of Tibetans still live within the Chinese Imperialist occupation till either of the two give up so did the Elamites; or
2) It could even be lile the Jews, who were forced out of their choosen homes in Uro-pee and now contribute to US civilization or Zion; or
3) It could even be like the Germans, who were blackmailed or kidnapped into the US and Soviet systems.

However the last two are not applicable to Elam.

An evidence of such a scenario as the (1) above is the fact that there is even a village by the name of Elam, I think in the Saharanpur Highway established/populated by Jaats. I have seen at least one claim by a Lohana Jaat that his origins are in Iran. Lohana surname could easily have been taken up in remembrance of Luhi-Ishan of the Awan dynasty. We have to this day a Jaati in north India called ‘Awana’ within Jaats that remind us of the Awan dynasty of the 2400 BC in the Elamite area. Assyria could easily by the origin of ‘Asur’ epithet. The people who broke up their neighbours with their propaganda and imperialistic tendencies. See the map below how the Assyrian were right in the middle of the Mittani and Elam.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Amarnamap.png

In current times you know how denied you feel by the creation of Pakistan. Pakistan was the land on which our Rishi Munis would teach and work at. Now it is just madrassa culture. The case is the same with Iran, Elam and Tibet. These were culturally the cognates. Any Indic could easily have lived and done business in any of these cultures. But for the injection of the new idea of ‘Master and slave’ in these cultures at various times. Now these cultures are gone even though the majority actually just stayed put. This majority cannot be called the real cultural off springs of their forefathers. These are just the digested residue who just allowed themselves to be digested and never really bothered to save the salvageable part of their own history.

In fact it is for this reason that the Scythians, Parsis, Iranis, Afghans, Sri Lankan Tamils, Tibetans, Chakmas all come into India. These people just think of India as the second Home. These people are more comfortable here than in what was their original home once it got taken over by the Occupation forces. To this day the remaining population of Hindu Pakistan is essentially the so called lower caste Hindus. And they want desperately to leave their homes for India but for the Dhimmi attitude of the Indian Government.

It is in this light that I say that the job of us Indians is not limited to preserving Sanskrit. That is just the beginning. Because Sanskrit is the link language between Puratan & Nutan India that will help us free up our history. But if we just assume like you did in your response that the Deka will kill PIE or IVC independent then I am afraid we will never fight for our tomorrow.

Now I hope Acharya ji I have been successful in bringing to your attention how the history of SIVC extends far beyond and how the Uropeans are the latest of the kind famously potrayed in bollywood by Prem Chopra. Both situations being linked in space and time.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_20317 »

Acharya ji, I am sorry if I sound like preaching to the Guru.

Had to get some keeda in my brain, out. And I am down with muscle spasm (back pain). Kindly accept apologies if I crossed some red lines.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by svinayak »

Good that more people are *thinking* now. :D
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Knowledge of Reality Magazine, Australia
Issue 16
By David Frawley

The Myth of the Aryan Invasion
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

99.99999% AIT-ians are hardcore desis. I think they fund the aryan pie too.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by devesh »

usually it is the North Indian "brahmin/elite" types who have a lot invested in AIT. in places like Delhi, pretty much everybody who has a lighter-than-average skin color, believes in AIT. I'm saying this from personal experience. it doesn't matter if they're brahmin or anything else, in Delhi if you have skin tone that is considered "white" by Indian standards, it is highly likely that your worldview is colored by AIT.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

i agree. my experiences are the same..[not dilli, but way down in mumbai and blur] i can name, but not good for public ref.

if Indian text books change, people outside India has no influence other than a comment. all these are within ourselves.. perhaps we are divided as one helluva diverse setup. we allowed ourselves to be divided, and keep blaming brits and firangs for dividing us. they only took the opportunity available at a sitting duck, at a shooting game. they love shooting it, and they did it.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

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Amarna period :idea:

A_Gupta ji I thought of Amarna period only as the change in Egypt from Pantheon to Sun worship. Which it is speculated is the start of Monotheism madness, and into which I have bought.

Wiki says:
Amarna period is when Amenhotep IV shifted his capital started sun (Aten) worship in preference to others in the pantheon and tried to establish a hierarchy. Wiki says Amenhotep IV also changed his name to Akhenaten.

A_Gupta ji, if this is exactly the period when Egyptians were talking with Mitanis. Then we need to know the contents of those letters.

Where can I know this A_Gupta ji? Your second list provides only one or two letters. I would be especially interested in the correspondence between Tushuratta and Akhenaten.


wiki says:
Tushratta was a king of Mitanni at the end of the reign of Amenhotep III and throughout the reign of Akhenaten -- approximately the late 14th century BC. He was the son of Shuttarna II. His sister Gilukhipa and his daughter Tadukhipa were married to the Egyptian pharaoh Amenhotep III; Tadukhipa later married Akhenaten who took over his father's royal harem.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

ravi_g wrote:In current times you know how denied you feel by the creation of Pakistan. Pakistan was the land on which our Rishi Munis would teach and work at. Now it is just madrassa culture. The case is the same with Iran, Elam and Tibet. These were culturally the cognates. Any Indic could easily have lived and done business in any of these cultures. But for the injection of the new idea of ‘Master and slave’ in these cultures at various times. Now these cultures are gone even though the majority actually just stayed put. This majority cannot be called the real cultural off springs of their forefathers. These are just the digested residue who just allowed themselves to be digested and never really bothered to save the salvageable part of their own history.

In fact it is for this reason that the Scythians, Parsis, Iranis, Afghans, Sri Lankan Tamils, Tibetans, Chakmas all come into India. These people just think of India as the second Home. These people are more comfortable here than in what was their original home once it got taken over by the Occupation forces. To this day the remaining population of Hindu Pakistan is essentially the so called lower caste Hindus. And they want desperately to leave their homes for India but for the Dhimmi attitude of the Indian Government.
ravi_g ji,

good write up.

Among Pakis, I have noticed countless times how they portray Sapta-Sindhu where all sorts of invasions took place starting with Aryans, Greeks, then Scythians, Huns, Arabs, Turks, etc. and that they are a composite culture of invaders only. The earlier inhabitants of the Indus Valley have long since moved on to Tamil Nadu. That is why there is no need for them to look for their ethnic roots or to overemphasize their ethnic background. Now all are Muslims.

A few things need to happen before Pakistanis crash into a huge wall of cognitive dissonance.

a) The world acknowledges Out-of-India Theory. The Talageri Model is a good one and based on much analysis. That means India is considered as the Urheimat of Indics, Iranians, Greeks, and Europeans.

This means the books of the world, including school books, would have to change accordingly.

b) The world acknowledges India's scientific and technological achievements.

c) Basically if the West recognizes India as Urheimat and Rig Veda and Puranas as the earliest documentation of that Urheimat, then the West breaks completely. It is not only AIT vs. No-AIT. No, it is AIT vs. OIT. Both Greek Rationality as well as Christianity lose their charm as the foundations of Western society, as Indic Scientific Consciousness and Vedism would look far more intellectually and spiritually engrossing as the foundation even of the West, and they will have to fall back on Indic Aryans to learn their roots, as they themselves have lost all sense of these old roots.

For racist Pakis, Gora is the ultimate TFTA. If Gora shows deference to Indians, Paki bottoms would bleed of jealousy.

d) It needs to be scientifically shown that Pakis have minimal Arab or Turk ancestry and all those Syeds are basically phony. In am sure, 97% of Pakistanis are plain old SDREs. It needs to be shown that due to the caste system in Pakistan and the inbreeding there, no phoren genes really entered much of Pakistani society. This is important, so that their cognitive dissonance is complete.

They need to think, why they are being treated by the world like shit even though the only difference between them and the Indics to whom the world bows, is Islam.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

ravi ji regarding letters, please click on the second link, the letters are translated.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

ravi_g ji,

Subhash Kak's article from 2003 is a good start.

Akhenaten, Sūrya, and the Ṛgveda
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a) The world acknowledges Out-of-India Theory. The Talageri Model is a good one and based on much analysis. That means India is considered as the Urheimat of Indics, Iranians, Greeks, and Europeans.
Rajesh ji, I so want that to happen, but I think we still are far away from that. The proof is not clinching enough for example linguists are now using recent R1a1 studies to say that there always were divisions between ANI/ASI bringing up Reich's 2009 paper. They also point out this very thing to be the reason to support AIT/AMT. as long as we don't prove it with certainty, nay sayers will lurker in the corners. And I am of the opinion that they have enough clout to prevent any changes to the present mainstream acceptance of AIT in our text books.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_20317 »

devesh ji & SaiK ji,

More a case of GIGO. The lighter skin people actually do believe in this more but that has less to do with affinity for AIT. Most lighter skined people in north India (and I bet) will never know of AIT. It has more to do with Uropain sensibilities encroaching upon our culture and the imbiciles amongst us giving into it. Whiteness of skin only is the triger. Imagine a dumb guy being told how he is hier to the Uropain world because his skin colour matches and how he is an Aryan (Nazi chaap) whose first duty is to destroy India by subjugating India to Uropain sensibilities.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

That skin color issue actually will kill any counter theory. once gotten into brains, it requires something like another counter EJ propaganda to remove it. Tough time for OIT-ist. What I am saying is, when people have chosen unscientific ways to establish themselves.. it has to countered on the similar lines.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

venug wrote:
a) The world acknowledges Out-of-India Theory. The Talageri Model is a good one and based on much analysis. That means India is considered as the Urheimat of Indics, Iranians, Greeks, and Europeans.
Rajesh ji, I so want that to happen, but I think we still are far away from that. The proof is not clinching enough for example linguists are now using recent R1a1 studies to say that there always were divisions between ANI/ASI bringing up Reich's 2009 paper. They also point out this very thing to be the reason to support AIT/AMT. as long as we don't prove it with certainty, nay sayers will lurker in the corners. And I am of the opinion that they have enough clout to prevent any changes to the present mainstream acceptance of AIT in our text books.
venug ji,

I don't think the difference between ANI/ASI really matters for that. There were more than one migration into India several tens of thousands years ago - around 80,000 years ago and then again around 60,000 years ago after Mt. Toba. There could have been other migrations.

Also the people spread out in the Indian Subcontinent developing independently in the beginning.

The point is that happened a very long time ago. And from that time it is really difficult to talk about any cultural and ethnic identities. There would have been language of some kind, but possibly still primitive. There would have been some beliefs in the supernatural but again quite animistic.

If the Europeans or the "white" race (though there is no certainty they were white then) had moved out of India before the advent of proper structured language or before common mythologies, then that would have been inconsequential in the larger issue of civilization. There were of course migrations Out-of-India before civilization came about (language, mythology, basic technology), but they are not interesting.

But that was not what happened in the case of Europeans. They took along a well developed language, mythology and even technology. So they carried civilization along with them when they migrated out of India, unlike previous groups of hunters, gatherers.

The ANI were in India long before the 'European' outward migration and the society had evolved into a civilization, with identity and faith politics.

We need to see 'Europeans' as a part of the ANI who moved out of India when ANI and ASI were less mixed and the part that moved out was the least mixed. The Druhyus were in the Western frontiers of India and had the least ASI component. But obviously as the Druhyus moved out, it doesn't mean they became the Europeans as we see today, just through migration. They became Europeans by intermixing with many other tribes on the way and incorporating their DNA into their ethnic groups.

But the PUrus, Yadus, Turvashas were probably then also not pure ANIs, but were part ANI, part ASI. Even the Anavas (Iranians) may have been part ASI.

The ANI and ASI mixture started happening in the far past, in pre-Rigvedic times.

Today hardly anybody in India is purely ANI or for that matter purely ASI.

In any case ANI was in India long before any date the AIT-Nazis have offered for Aryan infusion into India.

The proof will come when Indians and other objective or sympathetic Westerners would be willing to search for it and publish it.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

Linguistics, genetic studies, color theories why Europeans are white and SDREs are 'black' North-South divide are very complicated to say in few words even to tell an educated person leave alone our aam janata leading very simple lives, the only way is education from basic level, get rid of AIT from school texts, make students aware of alternate studies at least if by then AIT/AMT is not demolished in totality, the replace with phrases like "still need to be studied to understand completely". But when AIT/AMT is doubtful why give it false prestige? entry into text books is a big deal, you are preparing generations and generations and nanha SDREs. To counter nut cases like Witzel first demote AIT/AMT first.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

ravi_g, I believe I've seen the Amarna letters online somewhere some years ago, including transliteration from the cuneiform, but haven't been able to locate it.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Saik ji,

even the Europeans have different colors. Slavic white is not German white and German white is certainly not Italic white. Celtic white is not Greek white.

So the Europeans too are hardly one people, and if they can have different colors, what is so difficult in extending that color range to jet black if needed? Climate, racial intermixing and mutations can cause skin color change.

I don't know whether the pure ANI component is quite as white and blond and blue-eyed as some of the Europeans. I assume that it is not and that the 'whiteness' came from climate difference and intermixing with other peoples in the West. Similarly North Indians also became dark due to the heating of the region as well as mixing with the ASI.

As the Western age goes down and other poles of power spring up - China, India, etc. the concept of beauty would also go a sea-change. However tall and well-built would always remain superior. :wink: But that too can change over a few generations.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by brihaspati »

The reason I am not entirely satisfied with the so-called realistic interpretation for everything in RV is because of the odd scattering of statements in RV like "racehorse" being "led" by its "kin - the goat". Or the "horse" rising and originating from the "sea" and maruts consistently associated both with the "aswa" as well as "rain". And many others. Even the ratha following the aswa like lover. And especially where these are mentioned in connection to "sacrifices".

What I am going to suggest is not entirely rooted in what we now know as Vedanga jyotisha. But it seems a possibility that we may need to explore a stage in Indian thought about astronomy that predates the later formulation of jyotisha.

If we look at the constellations, there are several possible configurations that could be interpreted as a horse-goat pair.

In current interpretations of Vedanga Jyotisha : Aswini is in early aries (0-13/20) and is rooted in the symbolism of San(gn)ja transforming from a human to a horse to escape from the Sun. But Sun ultimately captures and "mounts" her - resulting in the birth of the twins Aswinikumaras. Just 30 deg away, from 20deg Kumbha to 3/20 of Meena, is PurvaBadrapada - whose deity is the "one footed goat" - Ajaikapada (a form of Rudra).

Not surprisingly, in the middle of Vrisha, neighbour to Aswini - 30 deg away - is Rohini, whose symbol is a "cart" or a "ratha". If one looks at the night sky from this view point, even in the much transformed Vedanga jyotish approach - one can discern traces of a possible older representation where, the "goat" was leading the "horse", and the "chariot" followed the "horse" like a lover. The horse itself was first mounted by the solar deity - who could have once been identified with Indra.

In Graeko-Roman viewpoint, Pegasus in Meena is roughly 30 degrees away from the "goat from the sea" Capricorn. A similar distance away behind is Auriga - the chariot. Compared to the Greeks, obviously Vedanga jyotisha has much less space for the "aswa" in constellation naming. The Greeks also have the "little horse" in the Meena -Kumbha zone - or rather "horse head". Interestingly, the little-horse-head sits slightly more than just one rashi away from Sravana, whose deity is Vishnu.

It is another wide discussion issue about Vishnu/Hayagriva etc.

The Pushan - bringer of cattle/herd wealth and prosperity - sits in between or rather oversees [ecliptic variation] the "aswa/ini" and the "goat-ajaikapada".

Maruts - associated with rains - seems to rule out origins in arid deserts. If Maruts are symbolic of Gandhara/Afghanistan - then this is more likely in the period Afghanistan was much more humid - in the immediate post Younger Dryas phase, and roughly at least 8000 ybp. The association of the "aswa" in connection with Maruts+ aswa rising from the "seas" and "rainstorms" may indicate an alternative route : that from Vanayu, or Arabian peninsula- Gulf region, thereby connecting sea-trade based horse transport as well as monsoon.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

Rajesh garu, yes I am partly aware of Oppenheimer's work, not totally but yes a little bit. But this R1a1 is new mutation which seems to have happened post holocene around 5000-6000 Bc, which is becoming controversial for that fact that many studies have been done even though R is based in India, R1a1 is being shown to be in South Asia or in Central Asian location or in Southern Russia in Steppes depending on who is doing the study and their motivation.Now this ANI/ASI divide says that there was a push from North which resulted in this division. This study is being used to counter OIT:
In South Asia R1a1 has been observed often with high frequency in a number of demographic groups.[25][26] Its parent clade Haplogroup R1a is believed to have its origins in the Indus Valley or the Eurasian Steppe,[27] whereas its successor clade R1a1 has the highest frequency and time depth in South Asia, making it a possible locus of origin.[28][29][30] However, the uneven distribution of this haplogroup among South Asian castes and tribal populations makes a Central Eurasian origin of this lineage a strong possibility as well.[9][10]
Also look at the map, see where they place even R and R1a1. This subclade is more a recent change in the time frame of around 6000 BC. Hence in my view we also need to understand genetic migration studies to make it clinching.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetics_a ... South_Asia

regarding skin color, from my earlier post :

Another important and interesting point discussed on IF (India-forum) is SLC24A5 gene that is responsible for skin color, apparently this gene mutation brought about the white skin color in Europeans:
From wiki:
Sodium/potassium/calcium exchanger 5 (NCKX5) also known as solute carrier family 24 member 5 (SLC24A5) is a protein that in humans is encoded by the SLC24A5 gene that has a major influence on natural skin colour variation Sequence variation in the SLC24A5 gene, particularly a non-synomyous SNP changing the amino acid at position 111 in NCKX5 from alanine to threonine, has been associated with differences in skin pigmentation.
SLC24A5 appears to have played a key role in the evolution of light skin in humans of European ancestry.
The threonine allele was present in 98.7 to 100% among several European samples, while the alanine form was found in 93 to 100% of samples of Africans, East Asians and Indigenous Americans.
A111T mutation may be the subject of the single largest degree of selection in human populations of European ancestry. Selection for the derived allele is based on the need for sunlight to produce the essential nutrient, vitamin D. In northerly latitudes, there is less sun, greater requirement for body coverage due to colder climate, and frequently, diets poor in vitamin D, making lighter skin necessary for survival. Tests for this variation has obvious application to forensic science.
It has been estimated that the threonine allele became predominant among Europeans 5,300 to 6,000 years ago
So from above what distinguishes white skin from the SDRE skin? presence of threonine. So this when present gives you white color of skin, lack of it makes your skin dark because of melanin pigmentation. So AIT/AMT now prove why European Aryans who displaced dark skinned Indians couldn't completely make Indians' skin white? but only the north Indians have comparatively lighter shades of brown color?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

brihaspati garu,

I concur with your thoughts. I think in Hinduism, there is a great effort to show synchronicity between the three layers - the psychological/spiritual, the sociopolitical/terrestrial and the cosmic/metaphysical/divine.

As such often narratives were spun by the rshis who could see these patterns at all three levels. Sometimes the movement of the stars were woven into a story where these stars and constellations were anthropomorphized. At other times historical figures were deified. And sometimes their spiritual experiences themselves were simplified.

Often kings, dynasties, rshis, rshi families were associated with cosmic phenomena, and I think when their lives showed certain patterns also visible in the night skies, then it was turned into hymns.

So reading of the Hindu scriptures is indeed a tentative undertaking. But my intuition is that there is also historical narratives in the scriptures but one requires a level of intuition to decode it.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

venug wrote:
It has been estimated that the threonine allele became predominant among Europeans 5,300 to 6,000 years ago
So from above what distinguishes white skin from the SDRE skin? presence of threonine. So this when present gives you white color of skin, lack of it makes your skin dark because of melanin pigmentation. So AIT/AMT now prove why European Aryans who displaced dark skinned Indians couldn't completely make Indians' skin white? but only the north Indians have comparatively lighter shades of brown color?
Well as I see it, as Druhyus or Danavas (Indians) moved North through Afghanistan into Central Asia into Russia, that is when threonine became predominant turning darker ANI people into whiter-complexioned Europeans, which sort of explains the color difference between Indians and Europeans.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

Rajesh garu,
I do agree with the skin color gradation among our own population North to South and alone the East-West from India.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

so, are you guys saying darker went lighter, and finally became whiter.. and at different time periods the migration meant something about the skin color too.

within the same color based migration theory, what if they argue reverse, ie, white became dark? white genes older than dark genes?

if you see spencer wells argument on this, this color based migration theory applies only between ice ages, since color pigments change only after a mutation of 20,000 years. so, it does not apply for AIT/OIT folks.

we have totally ignored the human structure and focused on color alone., which is wrong. the discussion is that the fair skinned desis having an inferior complexion and hence the support for AIT.. and that should not make the theory is valid.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

No need for anyone to jump to any conclusions about R1a1.
http://www.nature.com/ejhg/journal/v18/ ... 9194a.html

(Entire paper is here)
Indo-Europeans

A final comment can be made concerning the relationship between R1a phylogeography and contested origin of Indo-Europeans that is generally, though not solely, attributed to either Anatolia, the South Caucasus or the North Pontic-Caspian regions (Gray and Atkinson56 and references therein). Haplogroup R1a1a occurs in all three of these areas and beyond at informative frequencies (Figure 1). Consistent with its wide geographic spread, the coalescent time estimates of R1a1a correlate with the timing of the recession of the Last Glacial Maximum and predate the upper bound of the age estimate of the Indo-European language tree. Although virtually absent among Romance, Celtic and Semitic speakers, the presence and overall frequency of haplogroup R1a does not distinguish Indo-Iranian, Finno-Ugric, Dravidian or Turkic speakers from each other. Some contrast, however, is unfolding in its subclade frequencies. Although the R1a1a* frequency and diversity is highest among Indo-Aryan and Dravidian speakers, the subhaplogroup R1a1a7-M458 frequency peaks among Slavic and Finno-Ugric peoples. Although this distinction by geography is not directly informative about the internal divisions of these separate language families, it might bear some significance for assessing dispersal models that have been proposed to explain the spread of Indo-Aryan languages in South Asia as it would exclude any significant patrilineal gene flow from East Europe to Asia, at least since the mid-Holocene period.
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