Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

All threads that are locked or marked for deletion will be moved to this forum. The topics will be cleared from this archive on the 1st and 16th of each month.
Locked
Nilesh Oak
BRFite
Posts: 1670
Joined: 11 Aug 2016 06:14

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

RajeshA wrote:
Nilesh Oak wrote:
If this sounds like a rant, then I am probably guilty of it!
The point is to understand human psychology. What are the factors that play a role which enables a common man to accept one myth and to doubt another!
Glad you wrote disclaimer. :)

It was a great post, and as Achrya ji said it, definitely good idea to develop into an article.

My nitpicking of 'probably' was for (in retrospect - unsuccessful :) ) humorous effect.
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Nilesh Oak wrote:
venug wrote:
Shiv garu, I must tell you, one thing is I learn a lot from your posts, second thing is your posts are real fun to read, like the above.
I second it. Time to take next step.
Thanks venug and Nilesh. No I will write it up but will probably include it along with a lot of other stuff in something i have been wanting to write for a long time.
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RajeshA wrote: A general comment about pro-Indian books. Often they sound defensive, trying to justify our right to be left alone from the aggressive but unjustified views and propaganda of the West.

There is a psychological angle to all this.
+1

There is always a piskological angle!
Nilesh Oak
BRFite
Posts: 1670
Joined: 11 Aug 2016 06:14

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

RajeshA wrote:The point is to understand human psychology. What are the factors that play a role which enables a common man to accept one myth and to doubt another!
Nietzsche (I think) said something on the lines of..."People believe in the truth of anything as long as they feel that majority of them also believe in it"

And one below is for 'Shiv ji' as he tackles the challenge that is ahead of himself - on linguistics.

There are horrible people who, instead of solving a problem, tangle it up and make it harder to solve for anyone who wants to deal with it. Whoever does not know how to hit the nail on the head should be asked not to hit it at all.
Friedrich Nietzsche
SaiK
BRF Oldie
Posts: 36427
Joined: 29 Oct 2003 12:31
Location: NowHere

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by SaiK »

http://www.thehindu.com/arts/history-an ... 775417.ece

FACT FILE: Dolmens are like stone tables in appearance and are also known as portal graves as their entrance leads to underground burial chambers. Dolmens are known to exist all over the world from Japan and India to Europe, Russia and North Africa. While some of the most important and famous Dolmens are found in Ireland, the world’s largest colony of dolmens is in Korea numbering 35,000. In India, the presence of dolmens is recorded in Kerala and Maharashtra.
Nilesh Oak
BRFite
Posts: 1670
Joined: 11 Aug 2016 06:14

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

Arjun wrote:Did the Finno-Ugric languages produce any epic or literary masterpiece of note ? Probably not - hence the 'high priests' of the Indo-European civilization see no value in including them in their 'elite' and exclusive club.
Arjun ji,

Finnish epic is "Kalevala"

http://www.gutenberg.org/ebooks/5186

I try to remember the name as "Kala-vel" (in Marathi.. referring to 'time'.

Kala= Time (sanskrit and other derived languages).
ramana
Forum Moderator
Posts: 60273
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by ramana »

RajeshA wrote:shiv saar,

good work on looking up Finno-Ugric. So now the challenge becomes
  1. Looking up words in Sanskrit which can be shown to derive from various Prakrits in India, and are also present in other Indo-European languages. This is the case where the etymology of the words is better explained in the Prakrits including Tamil. Perhaps some "one-way" phonological change axioms may also help showing an evolution from Prakrits to Sanskrit, e.g. Tamil -> Sanskrit.
  2. Looking up words in Finno-Ugric which are closer cognates of Sanskrit or Indian Prakrits, than to other European languages. Some collaboration here between Indians and Finns/Hungarians may help!

The mythology/fakology we were taught was that Sanskrit shattered into all the Prakrits (sort of Tower of bBabel hypothesis)

It could be the other way round. Sanskrit was the refined/cultured language and could have many words from the various Prakrits.

(Recall one of King Hala's queen admonishing him for not knowing Sanskrit!)

As to why the regional languages developed could be due to the shattering of political power in the India during the double colonizations.

---------------

A few years ago there was a discussion between Rudradev and Ramanjuan about herd behavior in African grasslands. A number like 17% is the tipping point for the herd mentality to kick in. Applying it to humans we need a number ~ 15% to debunk the AIT and it will get mainstreamed.
fanne
BRF Oldie
Posts: 4583
Joined: 11 Feb 1999 12:31

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by fanne »

There is a Havrd study (referred here in BR, maybe the book folder or media thread), at what % can a thought process dominate the discourse, answer 10%.
rgds,
fanne
Nilesh Oak
BRFite
Posts: 1670
Joined: 11 Aug 2016 06:14

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

In reference to Parpola article , I am quoting Sue Sullivan, author of Indus Script Dictionary and creator of Sulllivan Code,

"Saying that Sanskrit-speakers contributed to the Indus Civilization is a bit like saying that the English have contributed to British Culture"
A_Gupta
BRF Oldie
Posts: 13533
Joined: 23 Oct 2001 11:31
Contact:

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Centum-satem_isogloss

Notice, they have to invent Proto-Tocharian and so on to save the idea :)
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Centum-satem_isogloss

Notice, they have to invent Proto-Tocharian and so on to save the idea :)
When your theory is shaky you have to make up all sorts of "on the spur of the moment" constructs to explain things. Someone had used the analogy of how complex planetary movements had to be invented to explain why the earth was the center of the universe.

This Satem-Centum business itself could be all bunkum - I recall reading something to that effect. Clearly the history of languages is not what it is made out to be and has not been figured out yet. Look at the map on the right side of that Wiki page you have linked. There are a few odd things.

First you find that in the corners of Europe Britain's coasts, Iberia etc you have Celtic languages today. Celtic languages have very few non Indo-European words. In the far Eastern corner of the map is Sanskrit and again Sanskrit has very few non IE words. Towards the north east of the map, nestled in between a line of countries that speak non IE "Uralic" languages you have Lithuania and Lithuanian a very small percentage of non IE words. The Uralic languages extend from Serbia/croatia in the South via Austria, Hungary right up north to Finland and Sweden. Lithuanian, that is pure IE is nestled in between. Actually the Uralic languages have some IE but according to me have even a Dravidian like mix of words. It is neither pure IE (like Sanskrit/Lithuanian) nor a mix like other languages.

The center of the western European land mass have "mixture" languages like Germanic (25% non IE), Helleninc (maybe 40% non IE) and Romance languuges that are also mixtures.

Pure IE with virtually no mix are Sanskrit, Lithuanian and probably Celtic - occupying the periphery of the "IE" map.

To me this suggests that IE languages may have been extremely old - predating most of the others and occupying most of Europe and India. Perhaps we need to look for a population group that went to these areas 25000 plus years ago (that's a guess). Towards Eastern Europe there was some mixing with what are now Uralic languages. In the middle of Europe various "invaders" created Hellenic and Germanic and Romance languages by mixing other languages with the old IE. It is the IE that is a substrate not the other way round. Witzel keeps insisting that "topnyms" and "hydronyms" (names of geographical features and rivers) suggest old substrates, But he has found very few. That could mean that the IE part of European languages are the oldest, and not the other way around.

Similarly there is a mention by Elst of a possible IE substrate in Dravidian languages, suggesting that IE came earlier only to be covered over by Dravidian which spread along the Indian ocean coast

And the oddest of the lot is the Austronesian languages that have an Indo-European remnant/substrate in the far east that cannot be explained by existing theories. The possibility that "IE" was spoken by a people who spread allover Europe and Asia in the very remote past - perhaps 25,000 plus years ago is something that needs to be considered. The language was refined and preserved in India as Sanskrit for ~ 8000 years.
pentaiah
BRFite
Posts: 1671
Joined: 11 Aug 2016 06:14

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by pentaiah »

Shiv ji please visit understanding the US thread there is some material for your understanding of US
ugandhar
BRFite -Trainee
Posts: 7
Joined: 21 Apr 2010 13:44

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by ugandhar »

As per AMT if there is small/big (I don’t know) migration of people from central Asia they must have settled in one particular area to actually change the language and introduce new gods to local people assuming that the host locals don’t outnumber the migrated people by that much. I think this process takes very long time. I also assume that there are local people where the immigrants settled. If they migrated with central Asian horses and chariots where are their remains? At least the first generation of migrants might have followed their central Asian customs of burials (Horses or Chariots buried along with dead).

So as per AMT there should be particular place (Large Town/City) where all this started. This has not been found. From this place Sanskrit must have emerged and these people might have composed Vedas. So as per their theory migrants arrived around 1500 BC, settled in a place, developed Sanskrit and started compiling Vedas and spread them far and wide in India. They haven’t included any details in Vedas regarding where they come from and where they settled which is very strange considering they sing praise about their original homeland’s grass and horse.

If the migrated people spread out over many places of north India and mix with local people, they are too minuscule to actually influence the language dramatically, so this theory doesn’t make sense.

AMT doesn’t make any sense no matter which way we look expect offcourse the mighty linguistics theory.
So what are the theories that AMT supporting people say about migrant’s dispersal method in India to introduce langue and change culture? Appreciate any pointers.
Arjun
BRF Oldie
Posts: 4283
Joined: 21 Oct 2008 01:52

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

ugandhar wrote:So what are the theories that AMT supporting people say about migrant’s dispersal method in India to introduce langue and change culture? Appreciate any pointers.
Some theories and their rebuttals here

The latest crock from Witzel seems to be 'billiard-ball like innovation and cultural change' by which a small group can influence the majority of the population.

The Dravidian parties should actually be the one strongly protesting this theory - it implies that Dravidians willingly gave up their language and Gods to adopt a 'superior' foreign culture - when they had not been coerced in any way (Witzel has himself disawoved AIT as in 'Invasion').
Arjun
BRF Oldie
Posts: 4283
Joined: 21 Oct 2008 01:52

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

Another means to put PIE linguists on the back-foot is with the Nostratic Hypothesis - which uses many of the same techniques pioneered by PIE linguists to hypothesize about the origins of a much larger group of language families (including Dravidian & Semetic). PIE linguists seem all hot and bothered that other groups are hijacking their privilege of deciding what constitutes cognates and what 'false cognates'.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

shiv wrote:To me this suggests that IE languages may have been extremely old - predating most of the others and occupying most of Europe and India. Perhaps we need to look for a population group that went to these areas 25000 plus years ago (that's a guess). Towards Eastern Europe there was some mixing with what are now Uralic languages. In the middle of Europe various "invaders" created Hellenic and Germanic and Romance languages by mixing other languages with the old IE. It is the IE that is a substrate not the other way round. Witzel keeps insisting that "topnyms" and "hydronyms" (names of geographical features and rivers) suggest old substrates, But he has found very few. That could mean that the IE part of European languages are the oldest, and not the other way around.

Similarly there is a mention by Elst of a possible IE substrate in Dravidian languages, suggesting that IE came earlier only to be covered over by Dravidian which spread along the Indian ocean coast

And the oddest of the lot is the Austronesian languages that have an Indo-European remnant/substrate in the far east that cannot be explained by existing theories. The possibility that "IE" was spoken by a people who spread allover Europe and Asia in the very remote past - perhaps 25,000 plus years ago is something that needs to be considered. The language was refined and preserved in India as Sanskrit for ~ 8000 years.
shiv saar,

interesting hypothesis.

Because the past is so unclear, with the AIT-Nazis having fudged it even further with their lies, one can speculate around and come up with many interesting theories!

I have noticed that in many of these theories it becomes difficult to ascertain in which direction the migrations went. Often we find some find in Russia with Vishnu murtis or with swastikas, and then we get excited and claim, our culture went that far, etc., but since we are still struggling to anchor our civilizational accomplishments in India itself, in the hands of AIT-Nazis it is just as good a theory as they can claim that Old Aryan culture which had its beginnings in Central Asia moved into the Indian Subcontinent and became the dominant culture. So many theories are really two-edged swords! Similarities at two ends of a continent says nothing about the direction of movement!

If we are saying that IE speaking people were spread all over Eurasia in the past, say 25,000 YBP, except for the fact that it does not conform to AIT-Nazis' proposals on times of migration and which language was substrate and which was superstrate in European languages, basically it does conform to the message that they want to put out -
  • there is nothing particular about India,
  • Aryans had their origins elsewhere and
  • some of them expanded into India
  • at some point in time
  • becoming the dominant culture, and
  • one need not give Sanskrit any preeminence in the order of IE languages.
  • Thanks for preserving the language and providing us a key for deciphering our past. Goodbye then!
  • Yes, sorry about the little mess with Aryan/Dravidian thing there, but it is your problem.
It is true that once India was considered a much bigger place extending far into Central Asia itself. That claim however is not really going to impress anybody outside India, and they will consider an origin outside the Indian Subcontinent as outside India.

The main effort of AIT-Nazis is to divest India of our Vedic language, mythology and astronomical inclination, claim it for itself and tell us that we borrowed everything from them!
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RajeshA wrote:
If we are saying that IE speaking people were spread all over Eurasia in the past, say 25,000 YBP, except for the fact that it does not conform to AIT-Nazis' proposals on times of migration and which language was substrate and which was superstrate in European languages, basically it does conform to the message that they want to put out -
  • there is nothing particular about India,
  • Aryans had their origins elsewhere and
  • some of them expanded into India
  • at some point in time
  • becoming the dominant culture, and
  • one need not give Sanskrit any preeminence in the order of IE languages.
  • Thanks for preserving the language and providing us a key for deciphering our past. Goodbye then!
  • Yes, sorry about the little mess with Aryan/Dravidian thing there, but it is your problem.
Yes. Yes and yes. What better way to put the AIT Nazis off their guard? Give the world a cafeteria approach that fits many ideas but still kills AIT. Kill AIT first and then give anything inconvenient a quiet burial by calling it a footnote, sideshow, substrate, adstrate etc.

Your pisko was dead on. But even the AIT sepoys and the non sepoy nonconfident self deprecating Indians need things to veer them away. And if you start talking dates like 25,000 years it is as much heresy as anything else.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

shiv saar,

You're right! Let a thousand theories blooooooom! Let AIT go boooooom!

One good model to take down AIT is perhaps using the pack analogy - like a pack of wolves or velociraptors take down a big prey!

Each theory in the pack should chew on some part of AIT! Also each paper from AIT-Nazis needs to taken apart both methodically and in ridicule! New theories need to be proposed and made popular!

At the moment Indians do not really have an academic machinery to build one detailed comprehensive Out-of-India Theory based on extensive research. So till then we will just need to keep on attacking AIT.
Virendra
BRFite
Posts: 1211
Joined: 24 Aug 2011 23:20

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Virendra »

I find it rather odd to believe that people migrated in or out of india only during AIT/AMT window and that scholars mostly discuss only this window. Humans have been roaming around here and there since perhaps their earliest days. The direction, distnace and need etc have varied. Such migrations would have happened all the time .. minor migrations every few centuries and major ones may be in the frequency of thousands of years.
To exclusively emphasize that there was an inward migration (howcome?) and that too in the AIT/AMT window is not only convenient but equally absurd.

Regards,
Virendra
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

The other thing I want to do is to write our clearly the sequence of arguments used in the current AMT so that people can see for themselves the holes in the story and learn to exploit those holes rather than keep on asking questions to be answered by "gurus". If you call a man a guru he may fart in your face and tell you that it is ambrosia. That is what the Witzel caste are doing.

The Aryan Migration/Invasion Theory hinges around the following assumptions:
  • That ancient Greek (Mycenaean) dates from around 1800 BC
  • Since Greek is "Indo-European" there must have been an earlier language dating to before 2000 BC
  • That earlier language is unknown. It is assumed to have existed
  • That same assumed earlier language must have given rise to all the Indo-European languages
  • That language must have started in one particular area and spread to all other areas
  • The next oldest language whose existence is proven are the Mitanni texts including the Kikkuli horse training texts from Syria in 1500 BC. The texts were found in Egypt as letters from a Syrian Hittite king to Egyptian Pharaoh
  • The Mitanni texts were deciphered from Akkadian cuneiform tablets. Akkadian cuneiform was deciphered after the decipherment of a multilingual inscription in Persia by Darius containing old Persian and Akkadian. Old Persian was deciphered because it is very similar to Sanskrit. Maybe the same. No one knows for sure.
  • The words used in the horse training texts are recognizably Sanskrit. In another text (a treaty) the names of Indra and Varuna are mentioned. Despite that, the existence of Sanskrit per se is not acknowledged, but the language is called "Indo-Aryan"
  • This Indo Aryan (no different from Sanskrit) of 1500 BC is said to have "become" Avestan and Vedic Sanskrit in later centuries
  • There is no proof at all that Indra and Varuna were Gods in Syria and their presence in a text in 1500 BC is explained away as Gods that were well known all over Iran and Afghanistan
  • Avestan (of Zoroastrianism) is dated from about 1200 BC. Most knowledge of Avestan comes from Sanskrit texts. Avestan and Sanskrit are very similar to each other.
  • The Rig Veda is dated to 1200 BC and placed in Afghanistan, Pakistan and the Indian Punjab
  • No credence is given by any AIT Nazi or AIT Sepoy linguist to the idea that Avestan and Old Iranian may have been a dialect of Sanskrit that came out of India. The assumption is that movement took place in the other direction. No proof for such movement exists anywhere.
  • Proof for such movement has therefore been cooked up by a rape of the Rig Veda where the text is assumed to represent a people who have a "horse cult"
  • Graves of people who had a "horse cult" have been discovered 3000 km away from India, north of the Caspian sea in the "pontic steppe" of central Asia. Absolutely no evidence exists of what language they spoke. But they have graves with horses bones buried along with leaders.
  • It is assumed that the people who are in the graves with horses and chariots were the speakers of the assumed original language of 2000 BC mentioned earlier. The connection with horses, burials and Rig Veda is vital for this theory to work. No proof of their language actually exists.
  • One poem in the Rig Veda is massacred in translation to claim that it describes a horse burial along with a king. (This is a pure concoction) This is widely quoted in literature as proof that the Rig Veda represents the very people whose graves were found in Central Asia Pontic steppe.
  • Another poem relating to a death and a burial in the Rig Veda, repeated in the Atharva veda, with some reference to a ritual in the Shathapatha Brahmana are taken as evidence of construction of graves in the Rig Veda that is just like the graves in central Asia.
  • One line (about 10 words) of the Rig Veda is mistranslated to indicate Sati and is correlated with a central Asian grave that had husband and wife. These linguists and archaeologists are saying: "After all Rig Veda=Hindu=Sati and male+female bones in Central Asia grave ==Sati"
  • The Rig Veda (dated as 1200 BC) is assumed to be a set of poems about a Central Asian culture that existed 1000 years previously in a place 3000 km away.
  • The mention of the horse and about 2 poems about horse sacrifice and burials are taken as very accurate and absolutely axiomatic about the Rig Vedic People. However astronomical observations and geographical observations are taken as mumbo jumbo as if the composers were sane when they wrote about horse and burial but loonies while writing about rivers and stars. This suggests that the text of the Rig Veda is considered selectively accurate by "expert" AIT Nazis.
  • The Saraswati-Sindhu civilization, based in the same area as the Veda with the same names is completely ignored
This whole construct is so complex and involves so many layers of history and 150 to 200 years of cooking up and bluffing that I am not surprised that it is difficult to break down this fortress of confabulation. The absence of a date in the Rig Veda but the beauty of the language has attracted linguists and allowed them to rape it like a nubile deaf-mute girl in an orphanage. It is up to us to reclaim the Rig Veda, point out how it has been raped and bring the Llar nazis into line.

Only slavery to western sources and texts makes Indians kowtow to the nonsense that has been passed off as scholarship.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Tocharians

Pennsylvania University Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology
Expedition Magazine
Volume 52, Number 3,
Winter 2010

By J.P. Mallory
Bronze Age Languages of the Tarim Basin

Read the whole Volume 52, Number 3

One thing bothered me.
J.P. Mallory wrote:Here, if he had been captured by a raider from the south, he would have had to talk his way out of this encounter in Tibetan or hoped for rescue from an army that spoke Chinese.
Is he demeaning Tibetans as robbers and kidnappers and sucking up to the Chinese?!
Nilesh Oak
BRFite
Posts: 1670
Joined: 11 Aug 2016 06:14

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Nilesh Oak »

shiv wrote:This whole construct is so complex and involves so many layers of history and 150 to 200 years of cooking up and bluffing that I am not surprised that it is difficult to break down this fortress of confabulation. The absence of a date in the Rig Veda but the beauty of the language has attracted linguists and allowed them to rape it like a nubile deaf-mute girl in an orphanage. It is up to us to reclaim the Rig Veda, point out how it has been raped and bring the Llar nazis into line.
Shiv ji,

This is precisely the reason why IMHO, we will not able to disprove their theory. Remember 'Irrefutability' is not the strenght of the theory. However don't expect retarded Indologists to ever come to that realization.

That is why working on Archeo-astronomy, Genetics, Geology, is the way to define this debate. Linguistics, and Archeology may corrborate conclusions of Archeo-astronomy, genetics and geology, but are incapable of falsifying existing notions (not theories, since most of them are BS opinions established via peer-reviewed journals and peer-praised books) whatever name one gives them.. AIT, AMT, PIE, Indo-Aryan, Indo-Iranian, indo-European...

Orthodox christianity fears 'theory of biological evolution' for the same reasons Indologists fear 'archeo-astronomy'.

While both (evolution and archeoastronomy) have contributed a lot to our growth of knowledge, Archeo-astronomy is on much firmer ground than theory of evolution.

Why is that?. This is because the best illustration, to this day, for the strenght of modern science is 'Cosmology' i.e. work of Copernicus-Kepler-Galileo-Newton-Einstein. And frankly those who worked on 'cosmology' were lucky because of the fact solar system and relative distances between Sun and planets are small in comparision to distance of solar system from rest of stars in Milky way. That is the reason why '3' or 'n' body problem did not causse too much inconvenience to approximations made by Kepler and Newton.
JwalaMukhi
BRFite
Posts: 1635
Joined: 28 Mar 2007 18:27

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by JwalaMukhi »

wietmer hat on:
Ah! but all the observation cosmology is based on approximations. For example: It is well known that the distance from the observed galaxy to the eye piece of the telescope; is assumed to approximately equal to distance between the observed galaxy and the eye, in comparison to distance between the eye and eye-piece. So, there you go this inexact assumptions are prone to yield errors in any cosmological evidences pertaining to the dating of Aryan texts. Have destroyed cosmological evidence. Where is paper that corrects all these assumptions? None of the linguists have written papers regarding such assumptions. Ergo it is not academically feasible to support such flights of fancy.

:twisted: Now where is my wietmer award?

Institutional academia and prostitution has now taken a new meaning. Although they have turned many times into incestuous relationships now in the case of AIT-Nazis it is turned into a citadel where rape of the (deaf and mute and vulnerable) has become order of the day! Hey, but paki rapists are routinely known to have fall in love with the victim and are awarded the victim as the prize.
AbhiJ
BRFite
Posts: 494
Joined: 29 Sep 2010 17:33
Contact:

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by AbhiJ »

Is it some another Paki Shit?
Arjun
BRF Oldie
Posts: 4283
Joined: 21 Oct 2008 01:52

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

AbhiJ wrote:Is it some another Paki Shit?
Yes it is....But the link it is based on is more authentic: ANI ASI Admixture Dating. Note the comments below the abstract..in particular I agree with user 'Parasher' in his analysis of the data.

India traditionally had two large indigenous gene pools (the ANI and ASI) - which started to intermix only over the last 4000 years or so.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

AbhiJ wrote:Is it some another Paki Shit?
I think shiv saar would be able to answer that better!

Actually Razib Khan is quoting a paper from Reich Lab, Harvard.

There was a conference by Society for Molecular Biology and Evolution, SMBE, at Dublin in June, 2012, where a paper (page 671) was presented by the team from Reich Lab, Havard Department of Genetics, USA and Center for Cellular Molecular Biology, India.

Estimating a date of mixture of ancestral South Asian populations
Authors: Priya Moorjani, Nick Patterson, Periasamy Govindaraj, Danish Saleheen, John Danesh, Lalji Singh*,
Kumarasamy Thangaraj*, David Reich*
Linguistic and genetic studies have demonstrated that almost all groups in South Asia today descend from a mixture of two highly divergent populations: Ancestral North Indians (ANI) related to Central Asians, Middle Easterners and Europeans, and Ancestral South Indians (ASI) not related to any populations outside the Indian subcontinent. ANI and ASI have been estimated to have diverged from a common ancestor as much as 60,000 years ago, but the date of the ANI-ASI mixture is unknown. Here we analyze data from about 60 South Asian groups to estimate that major ANI-ASI mixture occurred 1,200-4,000 years ago. Some mixture may also be older—beyond the time we can query using admixture linkage disequilibrium—since it is universal throughout the subcontinent: present in every group speaking Indo-European or Dravidian languages, in all caste levels, and in primitive tribes. After the ANI-ASI mixture that occurred within the last four thousand years, a cultural shift led to widespread endogamy, decreasing the rate of additional mixture.
This refers to an earlier study by the same group, I had linked with other studies.

Publication Date: Oct 12, 2011
By P. Moorjani, N. Patterson, P. Govindaraj, Lalji Singh, K. Thangaraj, D. Reich
Estimating a date of mixture of ancestral South Asian populations
Estimating a date of mixture of ancestral South Asian populations (2011) wrote:major ANI-ASI mixture occurred in the ancestors of both northern and southern Indians 1,200-3,500 years ago, overlapping the time when Indo-European languages first began to be spoken in the subcontinent
Now one of the mentors in that study, Shri Lalji Singh gave an interview to Daily News and Analysis India, also previously linked, where he says
Lalji Singh wrote:We have conclusively proved that there never existed any aryans or dravidians in the indian sub continent. the aryan-dravidian classification was nothing but a misinformation campaign carried out by people with vested interests. The study effectively puts to rest the argument that south indians are dravidians and were driven to the peninsula by aryans who invaded North India.
However in this study, the authors are suggesting that the ANI and the ASI did mix in a major way between 4000-1,200 years ago.

This does leave some wiggle room for AIT-Nazis, and Razib Khan seems to be looking for ways and means to explore that wiggle room.
Razib Khan wrote:The most likely candidate population for an admixture event in the Indian subcontinent within such a time frame are Indo-Aryans.
I do believe that the highest probability is that Europe and India saw multiple intrusive populations after the rise of agriculture. So the larger proportion of the ANI signal probably derives back to the early West Asian farmers.
However it is still not so easy for the AIT-Nazis to find a coherent narrative.
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Always need to be careful about DNA studies. Here is a comment on the same paper from another source regarding the method of study which the abstract above admits does NOT detect admixture prior to 4000 years ago

http://dienekes.blogspot.in/2011/08/ich ... ineic.html
I have previously highlighted that ROLLOFF, the method used by these authors produces age estimates that are about half the age of HAPMIX and StepPCO. As of this writing, ROLLOFF does not seem to be available for independent evaluation, so it is not entirely clear to me whether it, or the older methods, are right. It would be great if this issue is dealt with in the publication arising from this research.

Another issue that must be dealt with is the spurious inference that Ancestral North Indians are more closely related to Europeans than to West Asians in the previous publication on the ANI/ASI division, an inference that was an artifact of unequal sample sizes between Adygei and CEU.
Need to wait for the original paper, if it appears at all. It has not been published. The above extract is the one sent to conference organisers by the authors who presented teh paper at a conference.
Last edited by shiv on 17 Aug 2012 15:12, edited 1 time in total.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Arjun wrote:ANI ASI Admixture Dating. Note the comments below the abstract..in particular I agree with user 'Parasher' in his analysis of the data.

India traditionally had two large indigenous gene pools (the ANI and ASI) - which started to intermix only over the last 4000 years or so.
Actually at HarappaDNA site, they had quite a good discussion chronologically in parallel to the one here.
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RajeshA wrote:
Arjun wrote:ANI ASI Admixture Dating. Note the comments below the abstract..in particular I agree with user 'Parasher' in his analysis of the data.

India traditionally had two large indigenous gene pools (the ANI and ASI) - which started to intermix only over the last 4000 years or so.
Actually at HarappaDNA site, they had quite a good discussion chronologically in parallel to the one here.
Even the abstract mentions here that there is a great admixture of ANI ASI genes across India, but says that it cannot measure admixture prior to 4000 years ago . But the abstract uses clear AIT language. You cannot reach a cultural judgement from genetic findings in one study. At best you can say that a cultural issue may explain the findings among other things. But the abstract does not say that. It commits itself to culture change by saying:
After the ANI-ASI mixture that occurred within the last four thousand years, a cultural shift led to widespread endogamy, decreasing the rate of additional mixture.
The genetic study cannot show cultural change. It can only be stated to show reduced admixture after a particular time. The reason could range from sample bias, method of study to endogamy (as mentioned in the abstract). Endogamy need not be cultural change.

And I thing those who do not know how this dating is done in genetics need to know that the methods assume that X number of changes occur in Y time. So if the number of changes is higher the time is longer. the exact time cannot be known - it is an assumption. What amazes me is that they have fixed a lower date as "1200 years". Genetic studies can never show changes that occurred in 200 years or 400 years. That is possible only if you have proven DNA from a body dated to 200 years ago or 400 years ago. There are no genes from bodies available from exactly 1200 years ago, and even if there are this study has not used them, so the fixing of the date "1200" years - exactly where Witzel dates his Rig Veda is very suspicious. That is like saying that my face is exactly 58.7 cm away from my computer monitor. At best I can say "half meter".

I predict that this paper will be ripped apart, if it appears in print at all. The abstract has demonstrable bullshitting (in the form of a cultural judgement and a "resolution" of 200 years. Find me any genetic study that can conclusively detect differences that occurred 3200 years ago versus those that occurred 3400 years ago.
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Here is some general info on genes and dating genetic changes
http://oregonstate.edu/ua/ncs/archives/ ... techniques
Penguins that died 44,000 years ago in Antarctica have provided extraordinary frozen DNA samples that challenge the accuracy of traditional genetic aging measurements, and suggest those approaches have been routinely underestimating the age of many specimens by 200 to 600 percent.

In other words, a biological specimen determined by traditional DNA testing to be 100,000 years old may actually be 200,000 to 600,000 years old, researchers suggest in a new report in Trends in Genetics, a professional journal.

The findings raise doubts about the accuracy of many evolutionary rates based on conventional types of genetic analysis.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_mito ... ular_clock
A major assumption of the molecular clock theory is that mutations within a particular genetic system occur at a statistically uniform rate and this uniform rate can be used for dating genetic events. In practice the assumption of a single uniform rate is an oversimplification. Though a single mutation rate is often applied, it is often a composite or an average of several different mutation rates.[1] Many factors influence observed mutation rates and these factors include the type of samples, the region of the genome studied and the time period covered.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

I was just reading 'Tamil roots of sanskrit words' thread on a Tamil-centric forum Mayyam Hub, with posters usually having a somewhat anti-Sanskrit bent and a little bit of Tamil chauvinism thrown in. It is still an amazing thread with big claims but still some solid textual evidence to support their theories.

Probably we should re-categorize Sanskrit as a North Dravidian Language, which spread later to South India as well! :)
RamaY
BRF Oldie
Posts: 17249
Joined: 10 Aug 2006 21:11
Location: http://bharata-bhuti.blogspot.com/

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RamaY »

If you read some portions of ancient Indians blog, the Sanskrit (purified) was refined version of southern Prakrit (natural) and moved north during the floods of Manu.

Rama was a Dravidian and so was Krishna. Interestingly the sons of Indra (who ruled Amaravati - currently in Andhra Pradesh), Arjuna and Kakasura, both were dark skinned.
JE Menon
Forum Moderator
Posts: 7143
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by JE Menon »

We could simply say that we are all Dravidians with an Aryan disposition.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

JE Menon saar,

Europeans are also culturally (language, mythology) and to some extent also genetically Dravidians! There never were any Aryans in the European sense! :)
shiv
BRF Oldie
Posts: 34981
Joined: 01 Jan 1970 05:30
Location: Pindliyon ka Gooda

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RamaY wrote: Rama was a Dravidian and so was Krishna. Interestingly the sons of Indra (who ruled Amaravati - currently in Andhra Pradesh), Arjuna and Kakasura, both were dark skinned.
Rama and Krishna may have been dark skinned but calling them Dravidian means that you believe that dark skin=Dravidian, light skin=Aryan. Apart from AIT Nazis and racists do you have any evidence for this?

The fact that Krishna was dark has many corroborative bits of evidence. The word Krishna is used synonymous with "dark" in Sanskrit. But he was born in Dwaraka no?
devesh
BRF Oldie
Posts: 5129
Joined: 17 Feb 2011 03:27

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by devesh »

^^^
good point. just b/c there are light skinned and dark skinned variants among our population does not mean that we don't have a right to our nation. it certainly doesn't mean that we don't have the right to have a national narrative that unites us in a common goal. it also doesn't mean that we cannot be patriotic individuals who believe in one nation based on a common root source civilization. the diversity of our nation cannot be used as a ploy to dissolve the ties that bind us. nobody has a right to question our birth right b/c of their preexisting notions.

and why does it only apply to India? why not US? there are black and latino people in US in great numbers now. so does that mean the US doesn't have a right to one nation with common principles that bind them together in the spirit of patriotism? if US does have the right, then neither can India be questioned in her quest. our diversity in not an excuse to divide us into distinct homogeneous sub-identities.
nakul
BRFite
Posts: 1251
Joined: 31 Aug 2011 10:39

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by nakul »

Whats this dark / lightBS in Bharat Rakshak? There are dark skinned farmers in Punjab who toil in fields and light skinned people in Kerala towns who spend their day indoors. There is no way you can describe who is from where as long as they dress similarly.

As far as Bharat is concerned, don't we have the word Bharat (India) in our scriptures composed before genesis (6000 BC)? The country has been united for Aeons and we are still debating whether Aryans & Dravidians are the same. The only ones who should be in doubt are those who believe that there was no civilization prior to 6000 BC.

Hope we don't use frivolus reasoning like skin color & DNA as a replacement for culture & ethos to define our country.
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Wikipedia wrote:Aryan /ˈɛərjən/ is an English language loanword derived from the Sanskrit ārya ('Noble'). In present-day academia, the terms "Indo-Iranian" and "Indo-European" have, according to many, made most uses of the term 'Aryan' minimal, and 'Aryan' is now mostly limited to its appearance in the term "Indo-Aryan" to represent (speakers of) North, West and Central Indian languages.

Western notions of an "Aryan race" rose to prominence in late-19th and early-20th century racialist thought, an idea most notably embraced by Nazi ideology (see master race).
Wikipedia wrote:The English word "Aryan" is borrowed from the Sanskrit word ārya meaning 'Noble'; it was used initially as a national name to designate the worshippers of the Hindu deities and especially Indra according to Brahmanical principles (performance of sacrifice, Yajna). The Zend airya 'venerable' and Old Persian ariya are also considered as national names.

In colloquial English, the word has been adopted in accordance with Nazi racial theory's appropriation of the term to describe persons corresponding to the "Nordic" physical ideal of Nazi Germany (the "master race" ideology).

In Iranian context the original self-identifier lives on in ethnic names like "Alani", "Ir". Similarly, The word Iran is the Persian word for land/place of the Aryans (see also Iranian peoples).
The point is the word Aryan was unknown in Europe before they came to India and studied Sanskrit, and now they want to appropriate the word for themselves. Wow!

However Iranians and Afghans also use the word Aryan as Ir. Now there seems to be a lot of pride associated to the word. Sure it means noble, but is that the origin for the pride as say displayed by Iranians and Afghans? If they felt no pride in it, probably they would not have named their country Iran.

Forgetting White supremacism for the moment, what is the origin of this Aryan pride which the Iranians do show? Did it increase exponentially once Nazi Germany swore in name of Aryan and Aryan superiority? Possible! But as said it could be from an earlier time.

Now why would this pride come about?

As we know, according to revised AIT - AMT, there was no invasion. The incoming "Aryans" just came in, said something in Sanskrit, and all the local people embraced them in their hearts. Or was it the blue eyes and blond hair that made the first "Indo-Aryans" so appealing to the local populace, I don't know! Somehow they had such an influence over Indic society that they too over, imposed Sanskrit and constituted themselves as the nobility damning everybody else to eternal slavery.

But such an "Aryan" accomplishment must have been something to boast about! So is that the reason for Iranian and Afghan pride? Again sounds confusing, as Indo-Aryans and Iranians had parted ways much before "Indo-Aryans" allegedly achieved dominance in the Indian Subcontinent.

So what were Iranians and Afghans really proud of as racial Aryans? What had they done? Perhaps the AIT-Nazis need to explain that as well!
Murugan
BRF Oldie
Posts: 4191
Joined: 03 Oct 2002 11:31
Location: Smoking Piskobidis

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Murugan »

In the morning i was thinking to google out when for the first time the word aryan mentioned in europe or germany. st
RajeshA
BRF Oldie
Posts: 16006
Joined: 28 Dec 2007 19:30

Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Review of Prometheus The Movie

I had written a review earlier on Prometheus the Movie.

There the Other Aliens are called the Engineers. They speak Proto-Indo-European (PIE) and they created Mankind.

Basically this is another movie-adapted mythology of Aryans. Here a an image of these 'Aryans'.

Image

Image
  • They are milk white. Aryans are supposed to be Xanthochroi, or white skinned.
  • They are damn well built. Aryans are supposed to be almost super-humans.
  • Their eyes has a blue hue to them. Aryans are supposed to have blue eyes.
  • They are bald. White Supremacists, Neo-Nazis often shave their heads.
Now what is interesting is that in an interview with Movies.com, Ridley Scott happened to reveal some ideas he had about the story-line.
Movies.com: You throw religion and spirituality into the equation for Prometheus, though, and it almost acts as a hand grenade. We had heard it was scripted that the Engineers were targeting our planet for destruction because we had crucified one of their representatives, and that Jesus Christ might have been an alien. Was that ever considered?

RS: We definitely did, and then we thought it was a little too on the nose. But if you look at it as an “our children are misbehaving down there” scenario, there are moments where it looks like we’ve gone out of control, running around with armor and skirts, which of course would be the Roman Empire. And they were given a long run. A thousand years before their disintegration actually started to happen. And you can say, “Lets’ send down one more of our emissaries to see if he can stop it. Guess what? They crucified him.
What we see here is another means to instill into the minds of people that Jesus Christ is Aryan and not a Semite. This has been a long agenda of Christians in West to find a union of Christianity and Aryanism, something I had alluded to in previous posts!

I don't know whether Ridley Scott would be able to continue with his idea of making Jesus also an Engineer (Alien) and thus make him "Aryan" in his sequel Prometheus 2, but it seems this was his idea.
Locked