Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

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shiv
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote:Mario Alinei, The Celtic Origin of Lat. rota and Its Implications for the Prehistory of Europe, "Studi Celtici" 3, 2004, pp. 13-29.

http://www.continuitas.org/texts/alinei_rota.pdf
What never ceases to amaze me is how these people working in non critical disciplines merrily convert the earlier scholar's speculation into today's fact.

I refer to the manner in which the word "rota"/"ratha" has been assumed to refer to spoked wheel because chariot must have been fast.

Anyone who lives in India will tell you that huge wheeled vehicles in temples used to pull images of deities are invariably called "rath" and almost across the board have solid wheels. In India at least, "rath" does not refer to a spoked wheel.

However it occurred to me in an idle moment that "radius" (sun ray) could have originated from a Latin reference to the Egyptian sun God "Ra deus". Just speculating...
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

A paper from Thangaraj published this month, that summarises various previous reports and presents the latest thinking from CCMB, Hyderabad: Genomic view on the peopling of India
There are various evidences supporting the peopling of India by the early modern humans. It is well established that the modern human originated in Africa about 200,000 years before present (YBP) [5,6]. They started migrating out-of-Africa between 55,000 and 85,000 YBP. There are several thoughts regarding the cause and timing of this migration. One compelling view being put forward is based on geological finding. It states that there was a mega drought in East Africa between 135,000 and 75,000 YBP, when the water volume of Lake Malawi was reduced by at least 95% [7]. The timing of this mega drought corresponds with the timing of the exodus of anatomically modern humans out-of-Africa along the southern coastal route [4,8]. The firm establishment of the southern coastal route of modern human migration reveals India as a major corridor for early human migration. The anthropological, historical, linguistic and genetic evidence for early peopling of India is found imprinted all over the country.

Recently, archaeological evidence supporting the early peopling of India was discovered in the Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh, one of the southern Indian states [9,10]. This study shows that the country was inhabited by modern humans before and after the Toba eruption around 74,000 YBP. The evidence is in the form of stone tools. The stone tools of this study most likely resemble contemporaneous Homo sapiens technologies in Africa. Further, a partial cranium recovered from Narmada Basin was dated back to around 300,000 to 250,000 YBP [11,12]. Over the past two decades, several independent studies have been carried out in various Indian populations with ancient and modern DNA using haploid and diploid markers. Almost all the studies found signs of early settlement by the first group of modern human venturing out-of-Africa and very recent gene flow from west and east Eurasia [4,8,13-34].

There has been tremendous interest among historians, archaeologists, anthropologists, linguists and geneticists to understand the unique structure of Indian populations and their affinities with the rest of the world. Most importantly, researchers working on various diseases often find that disease-causing genetic variations are different in Indian populations. During the last two decades, many exciting observations have been made regarding Indian people by several investigators; however, these findings have remained scattered. Thus, we have made an attempt to present an overview of the peopling of India, the caste system, endogamous marriage practice, and the resulting health and forensic implications.
No support for the Aryan invasion

Even though there is a continued debate on the Aryan migration into India, detectable gene flow from west Eurasia has been shown by many studies [13,16,23,24,30-32,44,51,53]. Interestingly, we have detected gene flow from the west prior to the Aryan invasion [30,32]. There is now universal agreement that various Indian populations share a common late Pleistocene maternal and paternal ancestry, along with detectable east and west Eurasian ancestries [31,54]. Using hundreds of thousands of autosomal markers, we illustrated that the Indian populations have two major distinct ancestry components; one restricted to southern India, the second one restricted to the northern region of India [30,32]. It is noteworthy that both of the ancestry components show higher haplotypic diversity than those predominant in west Eurasia [32]. This rejects the idea of an Aryan invasion/migration and suggests ancient demographic history and/or higher long-term larger effective population size in India than in west Eurasia.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

KLP Dubey wrote:I am curious to know who are the Latin, Germanic, Finnish, and Welsh grammarians of the ancient times who could tell us what the roots of this word are in their native language. But of course, such grammarians are not to be found, which is why there is an urgent need for a PIE "root" to cover up the fact that these cultures were all using the Indian word in a corrupted form.
Let me reformulate it in a different way. There are two word classes for wheel in the Indo-European languages - the set of words cognate to kyklos and the set of words cognate to rota. These words are attested to in various living languages, and in the written form where of course we cannot be sure of the exact pronunciation, but certainly can identify the words.

Now, archaeologically, roughly speaking, the solid wheel dates to 3500 BC, the spoked wheel to 2000 BC, a difference of 1500 years. The hypothetical common language from which all the Indo-European languages are derived certainly had one word in use long before the other.

Moreover, the meaning shift of some of the cognates in the rota family, between chariot and wheel, suggests that in some languages the rota family word is a loan word from the other languages (no implication on the direction of borrowing and direction of meaning change).

Incidentally, this illustrates the quote below that I found on the web,

James Clackson (Indo-European Linguistics: An Introduction (Cambridge Textbooks in Linguistics), published in 2007:
"Reconstructed PIE is a construct which does not have an existence at a particular time and place (other than in books such as this one), and is unlike a real language in that it contains data which may belong to different stages of its linguistic history. The most helpful metaphor to explain this is the ‘constellation’ analogy. Constellations of stars in the night sky, such as The Plough or Orion, make sense to the observer as points on a sphere of a fixed radius around the earth. We see the constellations as two-dimensional, dot-to-dot pictures, on a curved plane. But in fact, the stars are not all equidistant from the earth: some lie much further away than others. Constellations are an illusion and have no existence in reality. In the same way, the asterisk-heavy ‘star-spangled grammar’ of reconstructed PIE may unite reconstructions which go back to different stages of the language. Some reconstructed forms may be much older than others, and the reconstruction of a datable lexical item for PIE does not mean that the spoken IE parent language must be as old (or as young) as the lexical form."
The kyklos/rota example may exactly be such an example, of reconstructed words that are "in PIE", yet are 1500 years apart, if we take it that the words began with the invention of each form of wheel. (And we cannot know if some existing word was shifted in meaning to be used for the new invention, all we know is that the word meaning association with the new invention could begin only with the new invention.)
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

shiv wrote:I refer to the manner in which the word "rota"/"ratha" has been assumed to refer to spoked wheel because chariot must have been fast.
Indeed. The author - god alone knows his antecedents - seems to be an expert in fantasizing and speculating (ironically, the Sanskrit word for that is "manoratha").

He makes much of the number of forms of the word seen in Celtic, but does not seem to realize the fact that Sanskrit has all these forms and more, and in addition also has BOTH words "cakra" and "ratha" with clearly distinguished meanings. Now he will need to claim that Indians borrowed both the spoked wheel and solid wheel from somewhere!
However it occurred to me in an idle moment that "radius" (sun ray) could have originated from a Latin reference to the Egyptian sun God "Ra deus". Just speculating...
All these words appear to be corrupted forms of Vedic words coming from "ra" roots. For example, the Vedic word assigned to "sun ray" is "rashmi" (the root is "rash"). An irregular nominative stem of "rash" could very well be "rA".

KL
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_23700 »

KLP's quotes below..
Indeed. The author - god alone knows his antecedents - seems to be an expert in fantasizing and speculating (ironically, the Sanskrit word for that is "manoratha").
+1
All these words appear to be corrupted forms of Vedic words coming from "ra" roots. For example, the Vedic word assigned to "sun ray" is "rashmi" (the root is "rash"). An irregular nominative stem of "rash" could very well be "rA".

Wouldn't 'Ra-vi' (Sun) be from the same root?
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by harbans »

The Egyptian Sun God was Ra too. Where does that fit in.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

A_Gupta wrote:Let me reformulate it in a different way.
Considering the number of uncertainties and speculative propositions that exist, the rigorous and correct method is to assume that the Vedic sounds "ratha" and "cakra" are the originals, and proceed from there.
The kyklos/rota example may exactly be such an example, of reconstructed words that are "in PIE", yet are 1500 years apart, if we take it that the words began with the invention of each form of wheel. (And we cannot know if some existing word was shifted in meaning to be used for the new invention, all we know is that the word meaning association with the new invention could begin only with the new invention.)
Indeed PIE is a non-existent language in more ways than one. On the other hand, the Rgveda has both words and these words are older than all the other cognate words.

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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

Might be worth your time to read this on my blog - it has to do with PIE.
http://arunsmusings.blogspot.com/2012/1 ... ure-3.html

More precisely, an empirical work trying to reconstruct Proto-Greek finds that it likely did not exist.
Last edited by A_Gupta on 14 Oct 2012 23:13, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by KLP Dubey »

^^ Thanks, will read and comment later. Meanwhile I find it hard to believe that the Indians (e.g. the Indus Valley) did not have the solid wheel and the spoked wheel. Even in the inscriptions we find spoked wheels. Solid wheels (for pottery) are apparently found even in Mehrgarh.

This is what I found on Wikipedia:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ratha
Indus valley sites have offered several instances of evidence of spoked wheels. Prof. B.B.Lal[12] has irrevocably proved with convincing specimens the existence and use of spoked wheel chariots in Harappan Civilization. Bhirrana excavations 2005-06.[13] Bhagwan Singh[14] had made a similar assertion and S.R.Rao had had presented evidence of chariots in bronze models from Daimabad (Late Harappan). This aspect appears to have been overlooked
.

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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

My thoughts:

1. Whatever the original source of Indo-European languages, I think neither the horse-chariot theory nor the Renfrew language-diffusion-with-agriculture theories work. That leaves us the Paleolithic Continuity Theory (PCT).

2. PCT has the underlying axiom (because the evidence to demonstrate it cannot exist) that languages are inherently conservative, and change only with good reason, with social, technological, etc. changes. Indo-European language was extant in most places of Eurasia where it is now at the start of the Neolithic.

3. If PCT is true, and yet post-Paleolithic inventions have common cognates, then these must have spread later as loan words. This ordinarily would seem like a big problem.

4. This is where the Garrett paper cited in the blogpost I linked to above is so much an aha! moment. Before the creation of written languages, you can imagine Eurasia to be having a continuum of dialects - no sharp language boundaries - across which sharing of words would be rather natural. (A big speculation, but it is inspired by the idea cited in that blogpost, that "if we had more evidence for other IE languages other than Anatolian contemporary with Mycenaean, we might not be able to separate out what was 'Greek' about Mycenaean from its neighbours").

5. The formation of written languages has changed the landscape and we find it hard to be in the pre-literate world. But without sharp language barriers, I think words can relatively rapidly move across this dialect continuum (speculation on my part).

6. I don't think the reconstructive methods of the comparative linguists are entirely BS. One has to understand however, what the reconstruction gives you. In particular, this idea of family tree of languages is a wrong metaphor. What we really had was more like a continuum of dialects, out of which languages sometimes coalesced. Once a language coalesced, it broke the dialectal continuity. Some dialects would get subsumed into the language and others would exist outside the records of the written language, influence changes in the language, but invisible to any evidence we can have. Yet others might vanish or might coalesce into a different language.

7. The evolution of languages before writing and after writing follows a very different dynamic. That is the answer to Garrett-type argument: "the model requires the unscientific assumption that linguistic change in the period for which we have no direct evidence was radically different from change we can study directly". This is because the linguistic change in the period for which we can study directly is only through written texts.

8. I do not doubt that sometimes migration/invasion type events took place, e.g., with the Hurrians of Mitanni where there is a Sanskritic superstrate (Indo-Aryan).

9. If Greece is an example where an urban civilization collapsed and then later reappears ( sort of within the same language, Greek), then Indus Valley Civilization might be a second example. Such periods are speculated to be periods of great linguistic change. I wonder what it meant for the Indian languages.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Vayutuvan »

Two things

1. I also do not believe reconstruction is entirely BS but on the other hand their claims/conclusions seem to be extraordinary without the required extraordinary proof.

2. Where does Chomsky's discontinuous origin of Language fit in the PCT? Granted he is in the minority of one who believes in the discontinuous theory of language origin. Moreover the timescales we are talking about are different, but if certain mutation took place once at some point of time, there is no reason another mutation has taken place at some other later date giving rise to an entirely new set of languages.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by johneeG »

shiv wrote:
RajeshA wrote: [*] The model ANI-ASI is important in order to show how the Europeans originate in India but DO NOTcarry many markers today present in the Indian population. These would have been the ASI markers. This model in fact provides OIT a chance.
Rajesh there may be no ANI ASI at all. Even the Reich paper does not explain how Dravidian speaking tribals have 40% "ANI" while upper caste Indo European speakng have only a little more at 60%

But my biggest objection to what you write is as follows. Please think about it:

The Reich study was done specifically to prove that ANI/ASI do exist.
North Indian upper caste genes of Indo European speakers were specifically chosen to represent North India.
South Indian tribals who speak Dravidian languages were specifically to represent South Indians.

In other words there was a selection bias from the start to try and prove something. The suggestion was that Northern Upper caste speaking an IE language was of Aryan descent and South tribal speaking Dravidian would represent the two extremes postulated by the Aryan invasion theory.

But what actually happened was that there was not a big difference between the two. The findings do not support the idea that a migrating population of Indo Aryan speakers displaced Dravidian speakers to create the caste system. The highest and lowest castes and the IE and Dravidian speakers all share a broadly similar percentage of genes.

What the authors have done is to call that proportion of genes that are similar to the European CEU as "ANI" and the dissimilar part as ASI. In other words as per the Reich paper if you have a slightly higher proportion of genes smilar to CEU (European), then you are "Ancestral North Indian". In other words North Indian==European similarity. Upper Caste==European. Therefore Aryan invasion may be true. That is what caused all the excitement despite the ambiguous findings.

I would reject the ANI/ASI terminology, I have been unable to find any other papers that use that terminolgy or have markers for ASI or ANI
Shiv saar,
excellent, simply brilliant. You laid it out in simple terms for all and sundry to understand. Generally, these studies are not comprehensible for laymen(like me). The technical jargon and fancy words boggle the mind and one simply has to take the conclusion of the 'researcher' on face value. You have done a great job of deconstructing it, so that it is understandable for all.

---
So, essentially, this study divides Indian genes into two parts, A & B. Gene part A is closer to Europeans compared to Gene part B. Interestingly, the study shows that Indian population has approximately same amount, 50%-50% of A & B.
a) So, the whole of Indian population has same genetic makeup.
b) All of the Indian population is equally closer or farther from the genetic makeup of Europeans.

The motivations of the study are revealed in naming A & B. Gene part A, the gene make-up that is supposedly closer to Europeans, has been named 'Ancient North-Indian'(ANI), while Gene part B, the gene make-up that is supposedly farther to Europeans, has been named 'Ancient South-Indian'(ASI).

The problems with the above method are:
a) The study wants starts with dividing the Indian gene make-up into two parts, those that are closer to europeans and those that are farther. Why this kind of division? Say, why not divide Indian gene make-up into those that are closer to African and those that are farther than African? I mean if someone wants to study the european gene makeup, do they start out by dividing european gene makeup into those that are closer to Indian and those that are farther from Indian? Obviously not. Then why such division in this case? This reveals the inherent bias. This study wants to prove that AIT is a fact. So, they start by assuming that AIT is a fact and dividing Indian genes into two groups based on their relation with european gene makeup. Of course, the samples are selected to suit this criteria. The samples are not random.

b) 'Closer' and 'farther' are relative terms. If I want to prove that one of set of oranges are closer to apples than another set of oranges, then I start by dividing oranges into two categories based on their relation with apple: Ancient Apple Oranges and Ancient Non-Apple Oranges. Very clever idea, isnt it! The division itself is designed to prove that one set of oranges are more similar to apples than another set of oranges. One starts by assuming as fact, what one wants to prove in the end. Of course, the obvious point is why bring apples into a discussion or study of oranges? 'Closer' and 'farther' are relative terms. All oranges are closer to each other than they are to apples. Similarly, all Indians are closer to each other than europeans.

c) The real nature of the division of the Indian gene make-up based on their supposed closeness with europeans is revealed in naming them. Gene part A, which is supposedly closer to the european gene makeup is named as 'Ancient North-Indian'(ANI), while Gene part B, which is supposedly farther from the european gene makeup is named as 'Ancient South-Indian'(ASI). This is the real game. So, the study is trying to prove that ancient north-Indians are closer to the europeans(that is ancient north Indians are genetically related to the europeans). This study is intended to be a rehash of AIT.

AIT has 2 versions. One version is based on regions: North-Indians are supposed to be Aryans while South-Indians are supposed to be Dravidians. Another version of AIT is based on castes: 'upper' castes are supposed to be Aryans and 'lower' castes are supposed to be Dravidians. The study panders to AIT in both its versions. The naming itself is based on the regional version of AIT. But, the study also tries to 'prove' the caste angle of AIT by concluding that 'ANI' proportion is greater in the 'upper' castes compared to 'lower' castes. This conclusion is not supported by data offered by this study.

The data presented by the study itself shows that Indian population has approximately 50% of gene part A(ANI) and 50% gene part B(ASI) across the regions and castes. Essentially, all the Indians from various regions and castes are approximately equally further( or closer) to europeans in genetic makeup. Of course, all Indians are much more closer to each other than they are to europeans in genetic makeup. Moreover, the data from this study itself shows that higher castes need not necessarily have higher percent of ANI. All this data, demolishes the AIT in all its forms and versions. The naming is more controversial because the ANI and ASI are approx 50% in Indians from all regions and castes. So, why is one named ANI and another ASI? One can easily reverse the naming.

Of course, the AIT itself is flawed because it is unable to make up its mind whether the Aryans(and dravidians) are a regional group or caste based group. They cannot be simultaneously both. If they are regional group, then they must be restricted to that region. If they are a caste based group, then they must be restricted to that caste. But, castes are spread in all regions. And all regions have castes. So, if Aryans are a north Indian group, then all the north Indians, regardless of caste, must be Aryans. If Aryans are an upper caste, then all the upper castes regardless of the regions must be Aryans. If Aryans are a north Indian group that migrated/invaded to/the south and became upper castes in south, then there should not be lower castes in north. But, AIT proponents want to have their cake and eat it too. So, Aryans become a regional group and/or caste based group according to their convenience which leads to self-contradiction in their theory. This AIT is a quack theory from start to finish which should never have been taken seriously. This AIT is based on the mentality of colonial europeans and their behaviour with regard to other civilizations like American Indians.

As far as this study is concerned, I am inclined to think that if the samples increase, then the overall gene makeup of India would be much more in conformity than this study already shows.

Correct me if I am wrong, but the samples seem to be woefully small for a country as large as India. The samples are selected carefully to prove the AIT(region based and caste-based). Representatives of North India are mostly samples from UP. There is also a sample of Kashmiri pandit. Representatives of South India are mostly samples from AP. Then, samples from UP are extrapolated on to the entire north-India, while samples from AP are extrapolated on to the entire south-India. Given the small size of the samples, I am not convinced that these samples can be extrapolated even within that particular state leave alone the entire north or south. The same is the case with extrapolating the small samples on to the entire caste/sub-caste.

The highest 'ANI' was found in Kashmiri Pandit(70%) and lowest was found in Mala(38%) from AP. But, is it going to be constant if the samples are increased? For example, if 100 samples of Kashmiri Pandits are taken, then will this high percent of 'ANI' persist or will it climb down towards the 50%? Similarly, if 100 samples of Mala are taken, then will this lower percent of 'ANI' persist or will it climb up towards the 50%? I am inclined to think that if the samples increase, then the overall gene makeup of all Indians would be much more in conformity than this study already shows.

Of course, even with data from this study, the highest and lowest are just 70% and 40%, while the others are all approx 50%. That means there is not much divergence from the mean(50%). So, the data of the study itself shows that there is no major difference in gene makeup of Indians.

But, the study makes a mistake of extrapolating small samples on to the entire region and caste apart from assuming that genetic makeup of the entire region or caste would be uniform. This study starts with the assumption that genetic makeup of the entire region or caste would be uniform and that differences will occur when region or caste changes. It does not consider or test for the possibility of differences within a narrow region or caste. That means, does ANI vary within Kashmiri pandits? If so, what is the highest and lowest percents? Does percent of ANI vary among Indians regionally in a steady manner? Does the percent of ANI increase or decrease as we go south or north? Or is the ANI percent random? The results of the study seem to suggest that ANI percent does not have fixed regional pattern. And it is rather random.

---
RajeshA wrote:
Anantha wrote: That could also mean upward social mobility (via marriage/courtship) for tribals and lower varnas based on their karmas, the way the varnas were intended.
Do not think that it was a one man-one woman relationship in older times.
I can't understand what karma has to do here! When women marry, they go and live with their husbands, and do not remain in their own family/group/tribe.
It seems to me that the complexity of Social mobility in India is ignored by many and simplistic theories or methods are formulated. The above study does the same.

The present day castes' status in India need not represent the castes' status in history. That means, if a certain group are classified as 'shudras', it is not guaranteed that they were shudras in the past also. Because, the groups can be promoted or demoted based on their behaviour. Demotions seem to be more common than promotions, but promotions cannot be ruled out. So, there is no guarantee that the present day caste status is same as it was in the past. And there is no way of knowing which groups were promoted or demoted unless the history of that particular group is looked into. So, each family has to be studied thoroughly before concluding whether their caste status was constant throughout ages or it changed. One cannot extrapolate present status into the past. This is particularly important if we are dealing with large time periods.

Firstly, the question is how were the Varnas formed and how do they function. According to the ancient Hindu scriptures, all were once Brahmins. Over a period, due to change of circumstances, certain people/groups deviated from the Karmas of Brahmins. These people/groups were assigned newer Varnas. This is the basic formula. Whenever, people of a Varna are not behaving according to that Varna, they are shifted out of that Varna to another Varna which is more suitable to their behaviour. That means, promotion and demotion is inherent in the system. Social mobility is part of the system of Varnas.

As far as I know, there is no ancient Indian scripture that lists out all the the families/clans that belong to various Varnas. This is important point to understand that the system of Varnas are not based ONLY on birth. If birth was the only criteria, then the scriptures would have listed out all the families(sir-names) that belong to different Varnas. The scriptures don't do any such thing. Instead, time and again, the scriptures stress on the qualities/vocations/behaviours of the Varna. In short, if the behaviour does not match the Varna, one is shifted out of that varna. Demotions seem to have occurred more often than promotions which accounts for greater numbers of 'Shudras' compared to Brahmins. So, present day 'Shudras' are not necessarily 'Shudras' in the past and vice versa. Of course, this social mobility seems to have freezed in the recent past(particularly last 1000 years).

There is another point which is pertinent in the discussion of genes based on Varna: It is assumed that Varnas are based on absolute Endogamy. This is not correct. According to the Hindu scriptures, a brahmin can marry women of all Varnas, a Kshatriya can marry women of all Varnas except Brahmins, ...so on and so forth. It seems, there was no limit to number of women per man. Polygamy was a norm while polyandry was an exception. Strictly speaking, a Hinduism allows polygamy even today. Of course, that is barred by IPC for Hindus.

That means, in ancient times, a single person may have had several wives from different Varnas, unless one is a 'Shudra'(in which case one would have had several wives only from that Varna). This means, the social mobility for the women(except Brahmin women) was very high. So, a brahmin woman would have to marry only a brahmin man and a shudra man would have to marry only shudra womEn. On the other hand, a brahmin man can marry any woman and a shudra woman could marry any man. This raises a question: What about children of such marriages? What would be their Varna?

A child inherits varna from mother's side and not father according to the scriptures. So, if a brahmin has 4 wives: Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra. Then, his children will have different varnas based on their mother's varna. That means he will have children who belong to all the 4 Varnas i.e. his genes have entered all the 4 Varnas.

This means:
a) Shudra varna would have the genes of all the 4 Varnas.
b) Vaishya varna would have the genes of the 3 Varnas.
c) Kshatriya varna would have the genes of the 2 Varnas.
d) Brahmin varna would have the genes of the 1 Varna.

Mahabharata provides examples in this regard. Dhritarashtra had 100 sons from Gandhari. Gandhari was a Kshatriya, so her sons were also Kshatriya. Dhritarashtra had one more wife who was a Vaishya. He had a son from her. This son, named Yuyutsu, was not a Kshatriya but Vaishya owing to the caste of his mother.

Dhritarashtra, Pandu and Vidhura had been fathered by Vyasa. But, Vidhura was a 'Shudra' as his mother was 'Shudra', while Dhritarashtra and Pandu were Kshatriyas because their mothers were Kshatriya. Interestingly, Vyasa is neither 'Shudra' nor Kshatriya.

So, child's caste is based on mother's caste, at least in theory. This means, that Varna system allowed the mixing of genes. The varnas are not designed to preserve the gene makeup of that particular varna. So, any study that uses genes based on Varna is bound to fail because Varnas are not designed for that.

All this is theory. Practice is far more complicated because practice did not always follow the theory nor did it consistently deviate from theory. Theory was followed sometimes, sometimes it was not, sometimes a compromise(a middle path) was evolved.

Mahabharatha provides examples:
a) In, Vidhura's case, the theory was followed. So, Vidhura inherits the varna from his mother. But, he is not just an ordinary 'Shudra', instead he becomes a minister of the kingdom. But, he does not go to war(a primary job of Kshatriya).
b) In Yuyutsu's case, the theory is followed but there is also a deviation. Yuyutsu, son of Dhirtarashtra, inherits the varna from his mother. But, he fights in the war of Mahabharata. Fighting in a war is quintessential task of Kshatriya. So, in this case, there was a compromise(middle path).
c) In Vyasa' case, the theory is not followed. Vyasa becomes a Rishi like his father Parashara instead of inheriting his mother, Satyavati's caste.

There are other examples in Mahabharatha that show that Varna system was already under stress. Karna's life is best example for this. Karna, who is considered a 'Suta'(possibly belonging to 'Shudra' varna), obtains education in Dronacharya's school. Here, no discrimination is shown. At an exhibition of skills by all students, Karna wants to duel Arjuna. Kripacharya asks Karna about his background and tells him that only a king/prince can challenge another king/prince. This is a clear discrimination. Then, Duryodhana declares that he will crown Karna as the King of Anga. Duryodhana goes ahead and crowns Karna rubbishing the opposition. Later, Karna is accepted as the King of Anga by one and all. This act of Duryodhana is not censured later. It is not mentioned as one of the sins/crimes of Duryodhana even though he supposedly violated the varna system by crowning a 'Suta-putra'. Karna goes to the swayamvara of Draupadi. There is a challenge that needs to be completed. If the challenge was completed successfully, then that person would wed Draupadi. When Karna rises from his seat to try his hand at the challenge, everyone(including the Pandavas) assume that Karna would win the challenge and marry Draupadi. But, Karna is stopped by Draupadi who declares that she would not marry a 'Suta-putra' regardless of whether he completed the challenge or not. Stung by this humiliation, Karna goes back to his seat without trying to complete the challenge. Here, there was clear discrimination. But, there is another angle here. It is to be noted that none of the other Kshatriyas stop Karna from trying his hand at the challenge. Drupada, Draupadi's father, does not stop him. It is only Draupadi that stops him. So, while there is varna based discrimination by Draupadi, there is also absence of it from other parties that are expected to voice such views.Then, Arjuna, who is in a Brahmana's, disguise goes and completes the challenge and promptly Draupadi garlands him acknowledging his victory. This victory of a Brahmin angers the Kshatriyas who attack Arjuna, who is in Brahmin's disguise. Theoretically, a Brahmin is never supposed to be harmed, yet we see an example that is contradictory to this theory.

This indicates the steady disintegration of Varna system during Mahabharatha period. There are other examples which stand testimony to this. Dronacharya, Kripacharya, and Ashvattama fight in the war of Mahabharatha as if they are Kshatriyas. In fact, Bhima chides Dronacharya on this very issue.

At the start of Mahabharatha war, Arjuna does not want to fight the war. Primarily, he gives two reasons for his disinclination to fight:
a) He does not want to kill his own kith and kin.
b) He fears that this war would completely shatter the varna system because all the males would die. And it would lead to unrestrained intermingling of the varnas.

It is of note that Lord Krishna does not refute this fear. He does not say that this fear is unfounded or that it will not happen. So, there is every chance that Arjuna's assessment may have come true, particularly because the entire 18 Akshauhini army is reported as annihilated i.e. the soldiers and warriors on both sides died except a few handful of individuals. And remember that all the Kshatriyas of the world participated in the Mahabharatha war except two: Rukmini's brother(Rukmi) and Arjuna's son(Chirtrangadha).

So, if the Varna system broke down after Mahabharatha, it must have been replaced by the Kula/jaathi system.

The present day castes are based on Kula/Jaathi. Kula/jaathi is equivalent to a clan/tribe. They should not be confused with varna.

It seems to me that Kula/jaathi is strictly birth based. Further, unlike the Varnas, it is difficult to say whether the Kula/jaathi allowed mixed marriages and if it did what the rules were. It seems to me that the rules were arbitrary and changed according to whims and fancies of the people involved. Sometimes, mixed marriages were not allowed and sometimes allowed. Sometimes, the children of these mixed marriages were deemed to belong to mother's Kula/jaathi and sometimes to father's Kula/jaathi. It seems that, of late, increasingly, the child is considered to belong to the Kula/jaathi of the father. The modern Indian law follows this principle. The child's caste is inherited from the caste of the father.

The transformation in Kula/jaathi, in the history, is very difficult to track. Newer Kula/jathi are also born from time to time. The above study breaks up the data in terms of kula/jaathi and yet it talks about 'ancient India'(when supposedly, Varna system was followed). The present day Kula/jaathis are not the same as ancient ones. Many newer Kula/jaathis have sprung up. The relationship between different Kula/jaathi has also been constantly evolving and continues to evolve. Since, the scriptures don't layout any particular rules for interaction between Kula/jaathi, the rules of engagement have been based on convenience, power equations, social status and such arbitrary variables. As the variables vary, the relationships have also varied. Scriptures only layout rules for the interaction of varnas and not Kula/jaathi. Which kula/jaathi belonged to which Varna in which period is not an easy question to answer. One would have to take the claims of that particular kula/jaathi at face value unless they are opposed by the claims of another kula/jaathi(even then there is no sure-shot way to resolve the issue one way or the other). This is particularly important because the scriptures do not enunciate which kula/jaathi belongs to which Varna. History can only tell us whether a particular kula/jaathi belonged to a particular varna in particular period or not. It cannot inform us about the origin of the kula/jaathi unless that Kula/jaathi was born in recent history.

Kula/jaathi have been rigidly endagamous in the past 1000 years. Yet, this has also been the time of explosion in the total number of Kula/jaathi. Many new Kula/jaathi have been born during this period.

The conclusion is that neither Varna nor Kula/jaathi are reliable factors to base genetic study that focuses on ancient India.

---
In the obsession with castes, people overlook another grouping provided by Hinduism which can be helpful in genetic study: Gotra.

Gotra: A term applied to a clan, a group of families, or a lineage - exogamous and patrilineal - whose members trace their descent to a common ancestor, usually a sage of ancient times.

While, varna is inherited by the child from mother(if the theory is strictly followed), Gotra is inherited from father. Gotra is always inherited from father, there is just no exception at all. The same Gotra indicates the same genes from father side.

A gotra is of immense importance to a Hindu for it shores up his identity. In any vedic ritual(including marriage), it is gotra that is paramount. Invariably the gotra of the performer has to be declared during the performance of any vedic ritual. All Hindu ceremonies require a statement of the gotra. A devout Hindu speaks out his gotra and pravara every day in the morning. Gotra also comes of use during the performance of the rites of passage or sanskaras. People of the same gotra (sagotra) are not allowed to marry, to prevent inbreeding. Any such relation is considered incest according to Hinduism. At weddings, the gotra of the bride and the groom are proclaimed aloud to establish that they are not breaking this socially ordained genetic precaution. This is exactly what the KHAPs in Haryana are trying to enforce in their own way. They are trying to stop people of the same Gotra from marrying each other.

In Hinduism,
a) A woman can marry the son of her father's sister or son of mother's brother or even mother's brother.
b) A man can marry the daughter of his father's sister or daughter of his mother's brother.

The above cases are allowed because the bride and groom would have different Gotra. Of course, the general rule is that man's age must be more than the woman's otherwise the man is warned that his lifetime will be shortened. (I guess the choice of lifetime or older wife is upto us. :mrgreen: )

Such rules can affect the genetic study. For example, Islam allows people to marry both paternal and maternal cousins which is not the case in Hinduism. This can be important in choosing the samples for a genetic study.

Gotra is also important in another way. In olden times, every gotra had a definite task to perform. Thus every Veda had priests of specific gotras for their narration and teaching. Certain sacrifices require priests of a specific gotra only. What this means is that gotra of the people can reveal what their origins were(from the father's side) regardless of their present social status(like caste).

So, instead of caste(varna or kula/jaathi) or region, Gotra is a better factor for genetic study. Of course, if it does not suit one's agenda, its different matter.
Last edited by johneeG on 15 Oct 2012 03:58, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by harbans »

Good post JohneeG, lots of material there. PS: have written a belated reply to some of your queries on the Derac thread.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_22872 »

Shiv sir, jhoneeG sir, Thank you, I am indebted to you guys. I tried to understand Reich's paper before, I was very uncomfortable with his analysis but I didn't know what was wrong with the paper either, but this is indeed very good analysis. Media hailed Reich's paper, 'genetic experts' were ambiguous in their analysis, and none were as clear as this. I like it, and thanks again...wonderful stuff.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by vishvak »

This two pseudo-parts systems is definitely not at all beneficial to Indian population for any understanding.

If some group has 50% so-called groupA genes and 50% so-called groupB genes, where do these people fit in and why do these people have to deal with such idiotic divisions when 50% so called groupA and 50% so called groupB should be at the far end of any well-defined measurements within India? This even may not be you v/s me kind of divisions and could be multiple calibrations as it just may be.

To generalize a bit more for 40%-60% or 70%-30%, how come within India people have to be on the borderline of this pseudo-separation between groupA and groupB genes, always a bit far from that other group?

This is ridiculous anywhere, especially within India everywhere, and absolutely ridiculous for people with 50% genes of so called groupA and 50% so-called groupB or for that matter 50% groupB and 50% groupA.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshG »

I don't think the reconstructive methods of the comparative linguists are entirely BS.
Given some BS, I find it very hard to believe that there is a reliable way to tell which bull it came from.

I find it reasonable (and scientific) that given a bull and some BS one can reliably tell whether the BS came from the bull in question.

However these guys take it one step further. Not only is there a claim that given the BS one can find the right bull from bull-dom but there is a further claim that given BS we can find the proto-bull (ur-bull ?) and which village the proto-bull came from.

Not only is this hard to believe and unreasonable but to me it tells more about the person making the claims rather then the bull, BS or ur-bull.

And perhaps at this point, I find it more reasonable that given an understanding of the person, one can safely predict the claims the person is going to make about bulls.

--------

Shiv, thankyou only for the post on ANI/ASI - i didnt see it in this way.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

vishvak wrote:This two pseudo-parts systems is definitely not at all beneficial to Indian population for any understanding.

If some group has 50% so-called groupA genes and 50% so-called groupB genes, where do these people fit in and why do these people have to deal with such idiotic divisions when 50% so called groupA and 50% so called groupB should be at the far end of any well-defined measurements within India? This even may not be you v/s me kind of divisions and could be multiple divisions as it just may be.

To generalize a bit more for 40%-60% or 70%-30%, how come within India people have to be on the borderline of this pseudo-separation between groupA and groupB genes, always a bit far from that other group?

This is ridiculous anywhere, especially within India everywhere, and absolutely ridiculous for people with 50% genes of so called groupA and 50% so-called groupB or for that matter 50% groupB and 50% groupA.
I think it is true ( as far as current genetics findings go) that Indians may well have ancestry from two ancient populations. However I note that the Reich paper, with Thangaraj as co author and the other paper posted by Arjun with Thangaraj as author both state that geneticists try to prove history by trying to look for historic differences. The history that you and I and geneticists have been taught is that an Aryan invasion took place. Both those papers with Thangaraj's name say that. I can quote relevant parts if anyone wants - it occurs in a 1.7 MB .doc supplement to the Reich paper and in Arjuns link, which says it up front with more clarity.

So when the Reich team found that all Indians had a variable degree of genetic closeness with West Eurasia they could have stated that conclusion rather than coining the loaded name "ASI" and "ANI". If all Indians, north or south, tribal or caste have a 40% or higher component of genes with a West Eurasia connection, why do they call it "Ancestral North Indian"? It is "Ancestral West Eurasian" no? " Instead what the Reich team did was to divide Indians into two categories. Those with more genetic closeness to Eurasia were dubbed as having more "Ancestral North Indian" genes. Those with slightly less genetic closeness to Eurasia were dubbed as having more "Ancestral South Indian" genes. Since the paper goes so far as to actually mention 19th century racist history of how languages were spread by invading Aryans, the use of terms like "ANI", "ASI", Dravidian, Indo-European is suggestive to any reader of the paper as "proof" that AIT is true. This is my objection to the Reich paper.

Now for the next decade some moron or other will quote that paper as proof of AIT. Mark my words. Every linguist and grave robbing Kurgan archaeologist under threat of extinction will welcome such terminology like a breath of oxygen and this ASI/ANI Reich paper will get quoted in papers like "Shathapatha Brahmana shows how to dig graves for horses and Reich et al have found that North Indians have Eurasian genes from 3500 years ago proving their Pontic steppe ancestry"

As other papers show, Indians may well have a mix of two populations - an extremely old mix going back more than 60.000 years with some newer mixes like Siddis and Pakis.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Rony »

Typical AIT sepoy lies. Listen how he links ANI/ASI to AIT/AMT and gene based caste !





The AMT-nazi gora is more sophisticated with his half truths talking about "elite dominance" for the spread of "Indo-Aryan" language.


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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

A_Gupta wrote: 3. If PCT is true, and yet post-Paleolithic inventions have common cognates, then these must have spread later as loan words. This ordinarily would seem like a big problem.
I am sure PCT is a far better model than the linguistic theories that have been forced on us. I have no reason to doubt PCT
A_Gupta wrote:9. If Greece is an example where an urban civilization collapsed and then later reappears ( sort of within the same language, Greek), then Indus Valley Civilization might be a second example. Such periods are speculated to be periods of great linguistic change. I wonder what it meant for the Indian languages.
If PCT is true then even these civilizations did not "collapse". Absence of evidence of what happened is assumed to be collapse in yet another (ho hum) instance of "absence of evidence is evidence of absence". The civilizations that continued did not leave evidence that we have found, that is all.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Rony wrote:Typical AIT sepoy lies. Listen how he links ANI/ASI to AIT/AMT and gene based caste !

The AMT-nazi gora is more sophisticated with his half truths talking about "elite dominance" for the spread of "Indo-Aryan" language.
Well this is exactly how the Reich paper will get used.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by A_Gupta »

Shiv,
The civilizations may not have collapsed, but they definitely underwent a long period of deurbanization.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Eureka!

Here is the Reich paper
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2842210/

More important, the Reich paper data is present in a separate 1.5 MB supplement which is a doc file linked here
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/article ... ment-2.doc

On page 7 of this file there is a small footnote that says how the name "ANI" and "ASI" were coined. The guilty party is one of the authors, one Kumarasamy Thangaraj, a typical name from Tamil Nadu. Here is what the footnote says:
Note: Haplogroups were designated as typical of Ancient South Indians (ASI) or Ancient North Indians (ANI) based on the judgement of an expert on mtDNA and Y chromosome variation (KT) who was blinded to ancestry estimates from the autosomes.
What is interesting here is that the "expert on mtDNA and Y chromosome variation" is "KT" - Kumarasamy Thangaraj. But the man has used his knowledge of who is North Indian and Who is South Indian from the samples that have been taken and he has coined the terms ASI and ANI arbitrarily. Unfortunately this slip is not going to get corrcted easily.

The KT paper linked by Arjun is OK. KT himself is more than willing to give both sides of a story and alternate theories so I do not hold anything against him - other than a Freudian slip where he has coined the ASI/ANI terminology
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

shiv wrote:So when the Reich team found that all Indians had a variable degree of genetic closeness with West Eurasia they could have stated that conclusion rather than coining the loaded name "ASI" and "ANI". If all Indians, north or south, tribal or caste have a 40% or higher component of genes with a West Eurasia connection, why do they call it "Ancestral North Indian"? It is "Ancestral West Eurasian" no? " Instead what the Reich team did was to divide Indians into two categories. Those with more genetic closeness to Eurasia were dubbed as having more "Ancestral North Indian" genes. Those with slightly less genetic closeness to Eurasia were dubbed as having more "Ancestral South Indian" genes. Since the paper goes so far as to actually mention 19th century racist history of how languages were spread by invading Aryans, the use of terms like "ANI", "ASI", Dravidian, Indo-European is suggestive to any reader of the paper as "proof" that AIT is true. This is my objection to the Reich paper.

<snip>

As other papers show, Indians may well have a mix of two populations - an extremely old mix going back more than 60.000 years with some newer mixes like Siddis and Pakis.
shiv saar,

some thoughts on the Reich paper

1) Their analysis of the Indian population to look for some correlation of "highness" of the caste and ancestral populations is really based on too little data from very specific population groups and thus it is insufficient to make any statements at all on caste.

2) The evolution of specific jaatis, kulas, paramparas, gotras, paravars, is really a complex structure guided by different contexts, social doctrines, and tactical considerations. So the genetic mixing is deep and continuous, and cannot be modeled by the simple models of population mixture developed for other population groups in the world.

3) One problem seems to be that based on some simplistic evaluation of "castes" and genetic components, we are jumping to conclusions about dominance of one group over the other, say ANI over ASI. The dynamism in the social landscape of India's history has been so much that I think such conclusions are completely misleading. We are falling into the trap of condensing history, taking two starting points which may be lying 50,000 years ago (say ANI and ASI) and then jumping to today, seeing how the components pan out among the North Indians and South Indians, "upper castes" and "lower castes", and then pronouncing some dominance dynamic based on some numbers, and our own limited and Western influenced prejudices on caste dynamic.

4) We are also projecting our linguistic and caste identities and identity politics of today onto some populations which may have been distinct from each other over 50,000 years ago, even though the genetic mixture among each identity group shows clearly that this cannot be done.

5) On the one end we have Pakistanis who identify themselves with some Arabs and Turks, even though there is hardly any of the genetic imprint of Arabs or Turks on the Pakis. It is like saying, "yes, 500 years ago some Turk soldier slept with a Pakjabi woman two villages away, so today we are all Turks, and the 99% Indian genetic heritage be damned". We are on the other end of this thinking spectrum. It is like saying, "ok, my caste has 52% ASI and 48% ANI, so I am declaring my origin as ASI, and since you are 52% ANI and 48% ASI, your origin is ANI, and now we have got a problem, because your ancestors oppressed my ancestors."

6) Here is one consideration. Let's say ANI and ASI were two populations which made their way from Africa down to the Indian Subcontinent over 50,000 years ago. Both components came from Africa originally. So we don't even know what was the skin color of ANI or ASI. It can equally be possible that ANI were darker than the ASI, but since ANI settled down in the North where the climes were somewhat colder and the ASI settled down in the South where there was more sunshine and the skin needed extra protection, ANI grew somewhat fairer and ASI grew darker over time. We can see how probably European skin color became fairer over the last 10,000 to 12,000 years. So before becoming "fair" ANI and CEU may have been quite dark! And the ASI may have been fairer. So going by skin color alone, it is just as possible that the average skin complexion of the present South Indians may have been closer to ANI than ASI, and the skin complexion of the North Indians may have been closer to Ancestral South Indians. I am just giving this example to give some measure of just how distant ANI and ASI really lie from modern Indians, and our identification with them cannot be on the basis of either-or.

7) What we can probably say is that Ancestral North Indians settled down in Northern India initially after the migration and from there spread out in all directions. Similarly Ancestral South Indians settled down in Southern India initially after the migration and from there spread out in all directions - northwards, to Southeast Asia, etc. So modern North Indians share the same geography with the ANI, and modern South Indians share the same geography with the ASI, but that is then about it. Any identification going beyond that can be misleading.

8 ) Even identification with ANI or ASI can be misleading even in the case of language. For example, I don't think Tamil would be closer to Onge language than to Sanskrit!

9) When we condense history like that for Indians, we are thinking from a European perspective. For the Europeans, the interesting part is the genetic overlap with Indians, and how to explain the language and cultural overlap with Indians. So they are interested only with demographic situation at the time of when the population with the genetic component they have in common with Indians, say CEU-ANI, started to intermingle with other populations with a different genetic profile. By capturing that moment, they are trying to capture and understand their own genetic history. So ANI is made real for the Indians and enters our lexicon. Similarly the Europeans tried to understand the same thing using linguistics, and at that time "Aryans" entered our lexicon, today also known as "Indo-Europeans". For an Indian, what we cannot do is to try to derive the history of social dynamics from just that snapshot from history, ignoring what came later on, of which naturally only very little would be known to us. After all we are speaking of a time space of 50,000 years.

10) So even though any conclusions reached by Reich et al. in terms of caste are rubbish or misleading, for OIT also the ANI-CEU connection is interesting. The genetic, linguistic and mythological overlap still needs to be explained, just as the non-overlap needs to be explained.

11) There is another psychological trap while studying this. While ANI (Ancestral North Indians) population group is shown to be connected with CEU (ancestral Europeans) and ASI (Ancestral South Indians) population group is shown to be connected to some "primitive" Onge, some modern Indians, e.g. South Indians, who would identify themselves exclusively with ASI (though that should not be the case) may think that other modern Indians, e.g. North Indians, who may themselves or by the South Indians be identified with the ANI, that the North Indians through identification with some dominant population today, say with Europeans, are trying to show themselves as "superior" to South Indians! In fact many North Indians may also start thinking on these lines. Actually this thinking is already there as a legacy of AIT. And the AIT like thinking within some unreflected Indians can get strengthened through this CEU-ANI connection. I can only say, that nothing is more BS. 10,000 years ago, probably the CEU were not much different than the Onge in their level of technological prowess and social structures. So lack of clarity on this issue can be in fact dangerous.

12) North Indians are both ANI and ASI. South Indians are both ANI and ASI. We cannot forget this!

Just some thoughts!
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

RajeshA wrote:6) Here is one consideration. Let's say ANI and ASI were two populations which made their way from Africa down to the Indian Subcontinent over 50,000 years ago. Both components came from Africa originally.
This is not how even the Thangaraj paper is positioning matters. As per Thangaraj and team, AMT can be ruled out as having occured at least in the last 12500 years - but that does not imply that ASI and ANI have equal antiquity in India.

Check out Figure 2 in this link I had shared earlier: Genomic view on the peopling of India

ASI and Andamanese are listed under Ancestral Tribes who arrived with the First Out-of-Africa migration. ANI is listed under Subsequent Migrations, though they have affirmed in other papers that this subsequent migration could not have happened within the last 10K years or so.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Lecture and Discussion in Chicago, June 2, 2012

Indian Encounters with World Civilizations
By Rajiv Malhotra


Rajiv Malhotra wrote:This leture and discussion was the first of a two part series of lectures I delvered in Chicago. In it you will find numerous facts and ideas about Indian civilization and its influences on the world that are seldom taught in our education system. While some scholars are aware of such things, the general public is not and even the mainstream academics downplay or even block out such materials.

I feel that a rising India in economic terms cannot find its true place unless its civilization's history is also re-discovered and introduced in the education systems of the world, just as other great civilizations such as Greek are respected.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Genetic Evidence in favor of OIT (Cont.)

Current Biology, Volume 9, Issue 22, 18 November 1999, Pages 1331–1334

Deep common ancestry of Indian and western-Eurasian mitochondrial DNA lineages [Full] [Alternate]
Authors: T. Kivisild*, M.J. Bamshad†, K. Kaldma*, M. Metspalu*, E. Metspalu*, M. Reidla*, S. Laos*, J. Parik*, W.S. Watkins†, M.E. Dixon†, S.S. Papiha‡, S.S. Mastana§, M.R. Mir¶, V. Ferak¥ and R. Villems*

* Department of Evolutionary Biology, Tartu University, Riia 23, Tartu 51010, Estonia
† Departments of Pediatrics and Human Genetics, Eccles Institute of Human Genetics, University of Utah, Salt Lake City, Utah 84112, USA
‡ Department of Human Genetics, University of Newcastle-upon-Tyne, Newcastle, UK
§ Department of Human Sciences, Loughborough University, Loughborough, UK
¶ Veterinary College of Srinagar, Kashmir 190003, India
¥ Faculty of Natural Sciences, Comenius University, 842 15, Bratislava, Slovakia

Abstract
About a fifth of the human gene pool belongs largely either to Indo-European or Dravidic speaking people inhabiting the Indian peninsula. The ‘Caucasoid share’ in their gene pool is thought to be related predominantly to the Indo-European speakers. A commonly held hypothesis, albeit not the only one, suggests a massive Indo-Aryan invasion to India some 4,000 years ago. Recent limited analysis of maternally inherited mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) of Indian populations has been interpreted as supporting this concept. Here, this interpretation is questioned. We found an extensive deep late Pleistocene genetic link between contemporary Europeans and Indians, provided by the mtDNA haplogroup U, which encompasses roughly a fifth of mtDNA lineages of both populations. Our estimate for this split is close to the suggested time for the peopling of Asia and the first expansion of anatomically modern humans in Eurasia and likely pre-dates their spread to Europe. Only a small fraction of the ‘Caucasoid-specific’ mtDNA lineages found in Indian populations can be ascribed to a relatively recent admixture.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Some selected portions from Kivisild et al (1999).

The first and the most profound layer of overlap between the western-Eurasian and the Indian mtDNA lineages relates to haplogroup U, a complex mtDNA lineage cluster with an estimated age of 51,000–67,000 years. Until now, this haplogroup has not been reported to occur in India nor east of India and was considered a westernEurasian-specific haplogroup. Surprisingly, we found that haplogroup U is the second most frequent haplogroup in India as it is in Europe (Table 1). Nevertheless, the spread of haplogroup U subclusters in Europe and India differs profoundly (Figure 2). The dominant subcluster in India is U2. Although rare in Europe, the South-Asian form differs from the western-Eurasian one: western-Eurasian U2 includes a further characteristic transversion at nucleotide position (np) 16,129, which is absent in Indian U2 varieties (Figure 2). We calculated the coalescence age essentially as described in [15,17] and estimate the split between the Indian and western-Eurasian U2 lineages as 53,000 ± 4,000 years before present (BP). We note that U5, the most frequent and ancient subcluster of haplogroup U divergence time of 9,300 ± 3,000 years BP. This is an average over an unknown number of various founders and, therefore, does not tell us whether there were one or many migration waves, or whether there was a continuous longlasting gradual admixture. Their low frequency but still general spread all over India plus the estimated time scale, does not support a recent massive Indo-Aryan invasion, at least as far as maternally inherited genetic lineages are concerned. We note, however, that within an error margin this time estimate is consistent with the arrival to India of cereals domesticated in the Fertile Crescent. Furthermore, the spread of these western-Eurasian-specific mtDNA clusters also among Dravidic-speaking populations of India lends credence to the suggested linguistic connection between Elamite and Dravidic populations.

Thus, we have shown that the overwhelming majority of the so-called western-Eurasian-specific mtDNA lineages in Indian populations, estimated here to be carried by more than a hundred million contemporary Indians, belong in fact to an Indian-specific variety of haplogroup U of a late Pleistocene origin. The latter exhibits a direct common phylogenetic origin with its sister groups found in western Eurasia (Figure 1), but it should not be interpreted in terms of a recent admixture of western Caucasoids with Indians caused by a putative Indo-Aryan invasion 3,000–4,000 years BP. From the deep time depth of the split between the predominant Indian and European haplogroup U varieties, it could be speculated that haplogroup U arose in neither of the two regions. This split could have already happened in Africa, for example, in Ethiopia, where haplogroup U was recently described.

Although there is no strong evidence yet for the presence of anatomically modern humans in India before 35,000–40,000 years ago, the earliest estimates of the presence of modern humans in Australia make it very likely that the subcontinent served as a pathway for eastward migration of modern humans somewhat earlier and that it could have been inhabited by them en route, as suggested by the ‘Southern Route’ hypothesis. Our coalescence age estimate for the mtDNA sub-cluster U2 overlaps not only with the corresponding value for the European U5, but with the suggested coalescence age of the Indian-specific subset of the predominantly Asian haplogroup M lineages as well (M.J.B., T.K., W.S.W., M.E.D., B.B. Rao, J.M. Naidu, et al., unpublished observations). Taken together, these data suggest that a common denominator — most likely beneficial climate conditions — led to the expansion of populations all over Eurasia, including the ancestors of those who now encompass most of the mtDNA genome pool of the extant Indians. Furthermore, this specific distribution of mtDNA varieties in India compared with the distribution observed among Mongoloids and the Caucasoid populations of western Eurasia (Figure 1) is, at present, best explained by two separate late Pleistocene migrations of modern humans to India. One of them, possibly arriving by the southern route, brought to India an ancestral population carrying haplogroup M and was spread further eastward. The second migration brought the ancestors of haplogroup U. Although the admixture of these major waves started perhaps very early — explaining the spread of these major mtDNA varieties all over the subcontinent — it is likely that it happened after the carriers of haplogroup M found their way further east, explaining the absence of haplogroup U lineages among Mongoloid populations studied so far.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

The split in the mtDNA hyplogroup U, I think, really explains the genetic commonality between Europeans and Indians. Of course it is based on mtDNA rather than on Y-Chromosomes, but if ANI Hg U women came to India having split from CEU Hg U women, then so did ANI split from CEU men.

The split may have happened outside India, perhaps even in Ethiopia, or it may have happened in India.

But we are taking about a time period 53,000 ± 4,000 YBP! In India developed the U2 line and in Europe the U5 line. So where ever the split happened, a mtDNA Hg U2 carrying population landed in India, not much later than that. Also European U5 is hardly present in India, which is also just as old.

This is where one gets the date that ANI arrived in India later than the ASI (ANI Hg U doesn't show up in East Asia, whereas ASI Hg M does), but which is still around 45,000 YBP.

It is not just Y-Chromosome Hg R1a1 connecting Europeans with Indians but also mtDNA Hg U.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Books for the Library


Image

Publication Date: May 03, 2007
Editors: Michael D. Petraglia, Bridget Allchin
The Evolution and History of Human Populations in South Asia [Google] [Amazon]

Author: Nicole Boivin
Chapter 15: Anthropological, historical, archaeological and genetic perspectives on the origins of caste in South Asia

Some chapters are available online here and there.

Table of Contents

Code: Select all

1. Human evolution and culture change in the Indian subcontinent 1
   Michael D. Petraglia and Bridget Allchin

Part I. Setting Foundations
_______________________

2. Afro-Eurasian mammalian fauna and early hominin dispersals 23
   Alan Turner and Hannah J. O’Regan

3. “Resource-rich, stone-poor”: Early hominin land use in large river systemsof northern India and Pakistan 41
   Robin Dennell

4. Toward developing a basin model for Paleolithic settlement of the Indiansubcontinent: Geodynamics, monsoon dynamics, habitat diversityand dispersal routes 69
   Ravi Korisettar 

5. The Acheulean of peninsular India with special reference to the Hungsiand Baichbal valleys of the lower Deccan 97
   K. Paddayya

6. Changing trends in the study of a Paleolithic site in India: A centuryof research at Attirampakkam 121
   Shanti Pappu

7. Was Homo heidelbergensis in South Asia? A test using the Narmada fossil from central India 137
   Sheela Athreya

Part II. The Modern Scene
______________________

8. The Toba supervolcanic eruption: Tephra-fall deposits in India and paleoanthropological implications 173
   Sacha C. Jones

9. The emergence of modern human behavior in South Asia: A review of the current evidence and discussion of its possible implications 201
   Hannah V.A. James

10. Genetic evidence on modern human dispersals in South Asia: Y chromosome and mitochondrial DNA perspectives: The world through the eyesof two haploid genomes 229
   Phillip Endicott, Mait Metspalu and Toomas Kivisild 

11. Cranial diversity in South Asia relative to modern human dispersals and global patterns of human variation 245
   Jay T. Stock, Marta Mirazón Lahr and Samanti Kulatilake

Part III. New Worlds in the Holocene
______________________________

12. Interpreting biological diversity in South Asian prehistory: Early Holocene population affinities and subsistence adaptations 271
   John R. Lukacs

13. Population movements in the Indian subcontinentduring the protohistoric period: Physical anthropological assessment 297
   S.R. Walimbe

14. Foragers and forager-traders in South Asian worlds: Some thoughtsfrom the last 10,000 years 321
  Kathleen D. Morrison

15. Anthropological, historical, archaeological and genetic perspectiveson the origins of caste in South Asia 341
   Nicole Boivin

16. Language families and quantitative methods in South Asia and elsewhere 363
   April McMahon and Robert McMahon

17. Duality in Bos indicus mtDNA diversity: Support for geographical complexityin zebu domestication 385
   David A. Magee, Hideyuki Mannen and Daniel G. Bradley

18. Non-human genetics, agricultural origins and historical linguisticsin South Asia 393
   Dorian Q Fuller 

Part IV. Concluding Remarks
_______________________

19. Thoughts on The Evolution and History of Human Populations in South Asia 447
Gregory L. Possehl
Review by Parth R. Chauhan

Looking at the cover, I think these people have a some sense of humor! :wink:
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by member_23700 »

RajeshA wrote:The split in the mtDNA hyplogroup U, I think, really explains the genetic commonality between Europeans and Indians. Of course it is based on mtDNA rather than on Y-Chromosomes, but if ANI Hg U women came to India having split from CEU Hg U women, then so did ANI split from CEU men.

The split may have happened outside India, perhaps even in Ethiopia, or it may have happened in India.

But we are taking about a time period 53,000 ± 4,000 YBP! In India developed the U2 line and in Europe the U5 line. So where ever the split happened, a mtDNA Hg U2 carrying population landed in India, not much later than that. Also European U5 is hardly present in India, which is also just as old.

This is where one gets the date that ANI arrived in India later than the ASI (ANI Hg U doesn't show up in East Asia, whereas ASI Hg M does), but which is still around 45,000 YBP.

It is not just Y-Chromosome Hg R1a1 connecting Europeans with Indians but also mtDNA Hg U.
RajeshA ji,

Excellent gleanings (by you) from above papers. Here is what Nilesh Oak ji, boastfully stated on another thread....
Elsewhere (OIT thread) I made a conjecture/prediction that in future.... dates of Ancient Indian events , using archeo-astronomy will be used to time stamp 'genetic admixing, sepration, migration (based on Y chromosome/mitochondria haplogroups).

Here I make a prediction that dating of ancient Indian events ....using Archeo-astronomy will be used to 'validate' reliability of FORMULAE used in modern astronomy software such as 'Voyager 4.5 (Carina soft) and other such software. I know this is bold, bombastic, boastful claim.. however I make this statement in all humbleness (recall 'Lage Raho Munnabhai" Bollywood movie.. "Bhai, vinamrata se bol raha hu, hato, bahar jao.. nahi to goli chalani padegi! ).
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Rony wrote:Typical AIT sepoy lies. Listen how he links ANI/ASI to AIT/AMT and gene based caste !

http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=pl ... BADFgmxcE4#!

This video is a classic example where so called experts in the field are themselves unable to read details in a paper and stick to superficialities and generalities and are fooled by misnomers like "North Indian genes". And he says it so confidently - like a person who knows that people will believe him because of his rank.

Even for an expert, the Reich paper makes heavy reading and I bet my left testimonial that 99% of people have not actually read anything beyond the abstract of the paper which say that Ancestral North Indian and Ancestral South Indian genes have been found. The data does not say that at all. What will happen is that there will only be more confusion and more studies where researchers confuse themselves before the penny drops and people find out the truth.

But there is one more aspect of the Reich paper that I am looking at now because I believe it holds an important key that no one talks about,

The comparison of Indian genes with European genes was not done by using any specific samples taken from specific groups as was done for Indians. The comparison was done using what is called as HapMap CEU.

Hap Map is a project that has put up open source genetic information about some population groups for medical research. These include some Japanese, Chinese an European gene information. In the case of Europe the "CEU" information used in the Reich study was the open source data of genetic information of 180 Utah residents of "Northern and Western European ancestry". This has been used as a template for "Western Eurasian genes".

Now I need to know some more about this and not much detail is easily available from Google. Clearly there is some genetic signal evident in the CEU data that is related to every Indian and that degree of relationship is greater or lesser in different Indians. What this means is that some genetic part that is present in the CEU data is present in every single Indian to some degree. In general, further south and east has less, and further north and west has more.

The Reich paper also says that they tool a slew of (publicly available open sourc) genetic material data from CEU, Tuscany (TSI) and Orkney Islands (Orcadian) and compared those with Indians samples to see if the European genes has a gradient of relationship with Indians genes in the way Indian genes were related to CEU. They found no such gradient/cline relating the European gene data to the Indian samples.

As far as I can tell this means that there are some genes that one set of Europeans also inherited that has gone to all Indians. But all Europeans did not get these genes. So all Indians show some relationship to "Western Eurasians". but all western Eurasians do not show any reciprocal relationship to Indians. That can be explained in more than one way. In any case AIT is not the explanation.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

Arjun wrote:
RajeshA wrote:6) Here is one consideration. Let's say ANI and ASI were two populations which made their way from Africa down to the Indian Subcontinent over 50,000 years ago. Both components came from Africa originally.
This is not how even the Thangaraj paper is positioning matters. As per Thangaraj and team, AMT can be ruled out as having occured at least in the last 12500 years - but that does not imply that ASI and ANI have equal antiquity in India.

Check out Figure 2 in this link I had shared earlier: Genomic view on the peopling of India

ASI and Andamanese are listed under Ancestral Tribes who arrived with the First Out-of-Africa migration. ANI is listed under Subsequent Migrations, though they have affirmed in other papers that this subsequent migration could not have happened within the last 10K years or so.
The 1.5 MB docfile supplement to the Reich paper has the explanation. They were looking at "founder events" among the Indians samples and figured out that the founder events occurred 150 generations ago (3750 years?) stemming from a particular group that happened to have a 60:40 ANI/ASI mix 4000 years ago leading back to a separate ASI and ANI line 500 generations (12,500 years ago)

The Onge/Great Andaman explanation is there in the paper you linked I think Arjun. Onge are a separate group IIRC, but there were 4 Great Andamanese male samples. 3 of these had an ASI father (Y chromosome) and one had an ASI maternal and Onge paternal ancestry (only the haploid X chromosome showed ASI evidence)

I still do not like the terminology ASI/ANI for genes that all Indians have
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by Arjun »

RajeshA wrote:The split in the mtDNA hyplogroup U, I think, really explains the genetic commonality between Europeans and Indians. Of course it is based on mtDNA rather than on Y-Chromosomes, but if ANI Hg U women came to India having split from CEU Hg U women, then so did ANI split from CEU men.

The split may have happened outside India, perhaps even in Ethiopia, or it may have happened in India.

But we are taking about a time period 53,000 ± 4,000 YBP! In India developed the U2 line and in Europe the U5 line. So where ever the split happened, a mtDNA Hg U2 carrying population landed in India, not much later than that. Also European U5 is hardly present in India, which is also just as old.

This is where one gets the date that ANI arrived in India later than the ASI (ANI Hg U doesn't show up in East Asia, whereas ASI Hg M does), but which is still around 45,000 YBP.

It is not just Y-Chromosome Hg R1a1 connecting Europeans with Indians but also mtDNA Hg U.
Good analysis...One point (totally unrelated to AMT) where there seems to be ambiguity though, is that some studies make a point of stating that ASI has high antiquity in India and is 'completely unconnected with other populations elsewhere'; whereas others point to the link through Haplogroup M with East Asia. The latter would seem to make more sense - but I have to wonder why the former terminology persists.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RajeshA wrote:Some selected portions from Kivisild et al (1999).


Although there is no strong evidence yet for the presence of anatomically modern humans in India before 35,000–40,000 years ago,
The Thangaraj pdf linked by Arjun says this
http://www.investigativegenetics.com/co ... 3-3-20.pdf
Recently, archaeological evidence supporting the early peopling of India was discovered in
the Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh, one of the southern Indian states [9,10]. This study
shows that the country was inhabited by modern humans before and after the Toba eruption
around 74,000 YBP. The evidence is in the form of stone tools. The stone tools of this study
most likely resemble contemporaneous Homo sapiens technologies in Africa. Further, a
partial cranium recovered from Narmada Basin was dated back to around 300,000 to 250,000
YBP [11,12]. Over the past two decades, several independent studies have been carried out in
various Indian populations with ancient and modern DNA using haploid and diploid markers.
Almost all the studies found signs of early settlement by the first group of modern human
venturing out-of-Africa and very recent gene flow from west and east Eurasia [4,8,13-34].
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by shiv »

RajeshA wrote:
It is not just Y-Chromosome Hg R1a1 connecting Europeans with Indians but also mtDNA Hg U.
I think R1Aa1 (M17) is out of India.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Books for the Library

Image

Proceedings of the Symposium on Molecular Anthropology in the 21st Century, held during the 14th International Congress of the Association of Anthropological and Ethnological Sciences, 26 July to 1 August, 1998, in Williamsburg, Virginia, USA
Editors: Surinder Singh Papiha, Ranjan Deka, Ranajit Chakraborty
Genomic Diversity: Applications in Human Population Genetics [Google]


Genetic Evidence in favor of OIT (Cont.)

The Place of the Indian mtDNA Variants in the Global Network of Maternal Lineages and the Peopling of the Old World
Authors: Toomas Kivisild¹, Katrin Kaldma¹, Mait Metspalu¹, Jüri Parik¹, Surinder Papiha², Richard Villems¹

¹ Institute of Molecular and Cell Biology, Tartu University and Estonian Biocentre
² Department of Biochemistry and Genetics, University of Newcastle-upon-Tyne, UK

Abstract
Both archaeology and genetics suggest that modern humans originated 100,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa (Cann et al. 1987; Stringer 1990). Their first skeletal remains outside Africa are about 100,000 years old but have been found so far only in the immediate vicinity - from the caves in Near East (McDermott et al. 1993; Stringer 1992; Stringer et al. 1989; Aitken and Valladas 1992). There is no substantial evidence supporting further spatial dispersal of modern humans earlier than around 50,000 years ago. By that time they seem to have reached Papua New Guinea and Australia and soon after that they are found also in Europe. What happened during this 50,000 year long gap and where did the initial radiation of the Eurasian population take place remains largely an open question.

Western Asia and India stand geographically on the road early modern humans had almost inevitably pass to reach eastern Asia, New Guinea and Australia. Did some of the migrating waves of humans settle there instead of going in corpore further eastwards? Was it the place where the initial radiation of Eurasian mitochondrial DNA lineages took place? There is a lack of skeletal evidence of modern humans from East Asia older than the Upper Cave Zhoukoudian crania (Foley 1998) that are dated to around 30,000 years before present (BP). The earliest skeletal evidence from South Asia comes from Sri Lanka, where the Fa Hien Lena finds put forward 34,000 year old carbon datings (Deraniyagala 1998).
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

Arjun wrote:One point (totally unrelated to AMT) where there seems to be ambiguity though, is that some studies make a point of stating that ASI has high antiquity in India and is 'completely unconnected with other populations elsewhere'; whereas others point to the link through Haplogroup M with East Asia. The latter would seem to make more sense - but I have to wonder why the former terminology persists.
From the paper Kivisild et al. (1999b) above

Image

Subclades of mtDNA Hg M in India - M1, M2, M3, M4, M5 are not available in any other East Asian population.

P.S. The M6a branch coming from Subclade D for Central Asia should actually come out M*.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by RajeshA »

shiv wrote:I still do not like the terminology ASI/ANI for genes that all Indians have
I think one reason why the terminology ASI/ANI sits uneasy is because
  • Ancestral South Indians sounds like Ancestors of South Indians, and
  • Ancestral North Indians sounds like Ancestors of North Indians
and that is misleading. The only thing they should imply is the approximate geography in which these early population groups first settled down in India after their Out-of-Africa migration.
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Re: Out-of-India - From Theory to Truth

Post by vishvak »

Far from being an expert, so take this for its worth.

The Govt. website could be for purpose of documentation only, where such links are located. However dividing to simplify in the literature may not be a part of the aim for all. For example, if ANI and ASI could be termed as pre-historic-no-later V1, V2, V3 only as per correct sequence, as the last image shows, could be taken as one baseline to begin with. (which simply it could be & as mentioned, I am no expert here). The idea being that not only it gives a good start of correct nomenclature, as a baseline definitions to fall back on etc., it also avoids maze of literature that may follow in future with all kind of Ancient-NI(-but-called-as-last-4000YBP) & Ancient-SI-(but-called-as-last-4000YBP) and then more and more. This more and more part includes not just India but a maze of regions that will be sold such weird nomenclature. An example could be Russia, where there may be -guessing wildly here- natural block in mind not to consider much beyond ice-ages when in fact citizens are residing in the regions. A simple explanation and nomenclature would in fact add to clarity instead of giving room for misinterpretation.

An example of such an (mis)interpretation is on Weeki-
Genetic Anthropology
Migration is mentioned as a cause of genetics, meaning migration as cause and genetics as effect though genetics as observation to prove migration is more reasonable!
This begins with
Language change resulting from the migration of numerically small superstrate groups would be difficult to trace genetically. Historically attested events, such as invasions by Huns, Greeks, Kushans, Mughals and modern Europeans, may have had negligible genetic impact, and if they did it can be hard to trace it. For example, despite centuries of Greek rule in Northwest India, no trace of either the I-M170 or the E-M35 Y DNA paternal haplogroups associated with Greek and Macedonian males lines have been found.[46] On the other hand, evidence of E-M35 and J-M12, another supposed Greek or Balkan marker, has been found in three Pakistani populations – the Burusho, Kalash and Pathan – who claim descent from Greek soldiers.[47](how much)
Then this goes on to mix a number of ideas and events ccuring over a huge period of time, all in same paragraph, such as caste, language, ANI-ASI or such, migration, invasion
there is genetic evidence in support of the traditional hypothesis of Indo-Aryan migration
..
the Indo-Aryan migration is associated with the R1a haplogroup, especially the R1a1a subgroup, which clusters in Eastern Europe and the northern part of the Indian subcontinent (What YBP?)
..
similarities between Lithuanian and Sanskrit, and more broadly, satem languages as a whole. (What YBP?)
..
Several such studies have isolated two major components of ancestry amongst Indians, one being more common in the south, and amongst lower castes, and the other more common amongst upper caste Indians, Indians speaking Indo-European languages, and also Indians living in the northwest. (What YBP? what sequence? mixed with caste)
..
According to one researcher, there is "a major genetic contribution from Eurasia to North Indian upper castes" and a "greater genetic inflow among North Indian caste populations than is observed among South Indian caste and tribal populations."(What YBP?, caste mentioned in genetic studies again and again!!)
..
Some reports emphasize the finding that tribal and caste populations in South Asia derive largely from a common maternal heritage of Pleistocene southern and western Asians, with only limited gene flow from external regions since the start of the Holocene.(notice Pleistocene with Holocene in one line, along with caste, west Asians etc.)
..
this finding alone does not rule out the possibility of an elitist and/or male-predominant Aryan invasion of the Indian subcontinent as in fact the patterns of historical conquest and migration are ultimately reflected in terms of sex-biased admixture, with the mitochondrial heritage being more stable and of more local origin and the Y-chromosomal heritage reflecting an external influence upon the population genetic structure, as can be seen in not only such regions as South Asia,[50] but also in such regions as Northeastern Africa (Semitic Y chromosomes vs. Niger-Kordofanian mtDNA)[51] and Latin America (Iberian Y chromosomes vs. Amerindian mtDNA). (notice aryan invasion mentioned with names of different continents, the people sampled here is reflected somewhat per Y chromosomes and mtDNA)
..
the majority of researchers (notice majority minority differentiation in scientifif genetic studies)
..
fact that upper caste Brahmins share a close genetic affinity with West Eurasians, whereas low caste Indians tend to have more in common with aboriginals or East Asians; and the comparatively recent introgression of West Eurasian DNA into the aboriginal population of the post-Neolithic Indo-Gangetic plain (usual caste, continents, aboriginal,..)
..
the population ancestral to ANI [Ancestral North Indian] and CEU spoke 'Proto-Indo-European', which has been reconstructed as ancestral to both Sanskrit and European languages, although we cannot be certain without a date for ANI–ASI [Ancestral South Indian] mixture (notice mixing of ANI 50000 YBP with CEU(when?) speaking PIE :rotfl: , ancestral, date(s) of ANI-ASI 'mixture', 'uncertain' about ASI but certain about ANI-ASI? )
..
confirmed the existence of a general principal component cline stretching from Europe to south India(suddenly South India is also mentioned?)
..
the Indian populations are characterized by two major ancestry components, one of which is spread at comparable frequency and haplotype diversity in populations of South and West Asia and the Caucasus. The second component is more restricted to South Asia and accounts for more than 50% of the ancestry in Indian populations. (notice how the second component however ancient only accounts for so much ancestry only)
..
both Indian ancestry components are older than the purported Indo-Aryan invasion 3,500 YBP[57] However, rather than ruling out the possibility of Indo-Aryan migration, these findings suggest that the genetic affinities of both Indian ancestral components are the result of multiple gene flows over the course of thousands of years, with Indo-Aryan expansion into the subcontinent but one of many complex demographic episodes. (ancestral gene flow from Africa with credibility mixed with so-called 3,500YBP influx to give natural credibility to Indo-Aryan migration)
..
This intricacy cannot be readily explained by the putative recent influx of Indo-Aryans alone but suggests multiple gene flows to the South Asian gene pool, both from the west and east, over a much longer time span (if can not be explain influx of Indo-Aryans -why should it- then why mention the so-called influx, also how east and west influx are mentioned here keeping the scientific genetic explanation open ended)
My comments in colors.
Not sure if such inverse studies would make sense to our own, or in fact anyone. Perhaps this rules may lead us to predict future when Indians would reach Africa and then evolve into Homo habilis or something. The Govt. may not allow documentation of such random evolutions. Perhaps some Govt. department should add to clarity and state that Indians have not given rights to anyone for such unnatural unscientific unnecessary nomenclature and ideas.
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