shiv wrote:brihaspati wrote: To apply the same law on two men, you need to ignore their individualities, their uniquenesses and construct a non-real abstract entity which is formed after trimming off those bits of these two individuals that dont agree and hence describes no one. There starts the first step in dehumanization of the human civilization where as much of the different aspects of humanity as possible must be trimmed away, to create a human-entity that represents none. The end product of the "rationally universal" project is therefore a convenient shell which can then be defined according to the context and convenience of those who have the power to do so.
Super stuff. Spot on, but it took me hundreds of words and scores of posts to try and say this.
LokeshC wrote:
Super stuff indeed. I knew that the left-wing libertarians of the west have an equal (if not more) part in plundering and "genociding" what they consider to be "the other", but I did not know how they could bring themselves to do it. The answer is in the bolded point in Brihaspati-ji's post. Dehumanizing and labeling "the other", is the first step in genocide.
Here is an example of "dehumanizing" at work:
One of my good friends is a prof of pyschology a pol-sci dept in a UKstani univ (a good example of cross collab b/w diff areas of science). He was telling me about how there is a section of people in the pol-sci community who are proponents of "rational choice theory" (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rational_choice_theory), who irrationally defend their philosophy against any criticism. They claim that rational-choice is universally human and that the politics of every country that has some form of democracy can be modeled successfully by Rational-Choice theory.
One of the piskology/behavioral econmics oriented guys in the community proved in a study, that most people DO NOT make rational choices in politics and the prof also provided statistical evidence that conclusively proved it so. They proved an early version of what is now mainstream knowledge: People who deeply believe in something when provided with evidence contrary to that belief, stick even more closely to that very belief (a version of cognitive dissonance). This caused a huge consternation within the rational choice community and made them kick out a few profs/post grads because they supported the new evidence, thereby proving that the study was correct

Since the rational thing to do would be to have accepted that contrary evidence and modify their theories.
This is exactly what happens to any one who tries to apply abstract philosophy like a mathematical equation on ALL humans expects everyone to follow it like a robot, and obviously dehumanizing them in the process.
I haven't read about rational choice theory, but I seem to have unknowingly written a criticism of it.
venkat_r wrote:USA looks after its own interests alone
We are all taught that nation-states look after their interests especially the 'superpowers'. But, does this dictum tally with the actual behaviour of the nation-states?
When someone says, "USA(or any other nation-state) looks after its own interests"; then one assumes that in that in that statement, 'USA'(or any other nation-state) refers to the people of that state or atleast the majority of people of that state. If we are referring to the majority of the people of a state when we talk about a nation-state, then does the behaviour tally with the dictum we are taught?
I don't think so. IMHO, nation-states(or any organizations) look after the interests of those who control them.
So, nation-states(like the erstwhile historical empires) primarily look after the interests of those who rule them. The interests of the rulers are of highest priority. The interests of the country(or even the system) are secondary for. The rulers can be political, economical, social, cultural, or religious forces. They may be ruling covertly or overtly. They may rule directly or through proxies.
Nation-states(like any other organization) becomes a vehicle to fulfill the needs, desires, whims, and fancies of the rulers/controllers. In fact, any organization can be further sub-divided into sections, each having its own ruler/controller(with his own agendas and bias).
So, nation-state has a set of people who control it. All of these people need not have same interests. They may have some common interests. But, all their interests need not be common. Different people have differing interests. The corporations have certain interests. Politicians have certain interests. Generals heading military and intelligence bodies have their own agendas. Each of these categories can be sub-divided into further categories(which are headed by another set of people). The lower down one is on hierarchy, the lesser his views/deeds will impact the views/deeds of organization(in this case, nation-state). Actually, let me refine it and say that the further you are from the decision making process, thew the lesser your views/deeds will impact the views/deeds of organization.
Any organization(including a nation-state) is controlled by people. And, people have emotions. Emotions like: desires, anger, greed, delusions, ego, and envy; are present in all the people.
Whenever, a logical course is not followed we can easily put it down to an emotion. If a person has not taken the logically correct choice, then one can account it to one of emotions. Eg:
Q: Why did you do it, when you know better than that?
A: I was angry! or
A: I was afraid(delusion)! or
A: I was ecstatic(delusion)! or
A: I became greedy! or
A: I jealous!
A: I couldn't resist the temptation(desire)!
The primary in all beings is:ego. 'I'. This leads to 'Mine'. That means, people think,"whats in it for me(or my people)?"
This leads to:
a) nepotism i.e. favouring one's favourites.
b) corruption i.e. putting individual goals above the goals of organization.
So, there is ample chance that people may not make correct choice even when they have the correct knowledge. Of course, people seldom have correct knowledge and wherewithal to assess it properly. That means, the chances of people(consequently the organizations) making mistakes is always high. Now, add to it that the interests of the decision making people may be at odds with the supposed goals of the organization. Then, consider that this can happen at all levels(sections) with an organization. Even in a relatively small organization, the performance of different sections can have an impact on the final performance of the organization itself. But, there is also a chance that it can rectified quickly due to the smaller scale. But, as the scale increases, this becomes more difficult to rectify. So, larger organization can find it difficult to pinpoint the problem. This becomes more difficult if the problem is not limited to one sector but is spread across the several sectors. If the problem ids underlying, then it is much more difficult to locate and cure. So frequently, in such cases, the symptoms are cures while the original problem persists and continues to grows worse. We are assuming that people want to solve the problem. But, most of the time, those in the organization don't want to solve it because the status quo suits them or trying to solve it involves lot of risk (particularly if the problem happens to be in the higher echelons).
To this equation, nepotism adds another angle. Nepotism(and favoritism) is far more feasible in the higher levels than the lower levels due to the powers wrested at higher levels. Nepotism ensures that the system continues to be headed by small set of people who have relations to each other. The relations could be family relations or business relations. Cartels/nexus of power are formed such that people protect and promote each other within a small selected group. These links can be formed through business relations and marital relations. This gives rise to elites who wield power and money. These people control all the choke points of a society. They project their interests on to the nation and society.
All of it is common knowledge. But, somehow, people want to think about nation-states as if they are robots trained to look after their national interests. They completely ignore that human aspect. The thing that can change the human aspect is ideology. So, ideology needs to be given the importance also, when trying to understand the actions of a state. The behaviour of the nation-states is much more understandable when we take the role of human behaviour(including individual/group agendas) and ideological motivations(of the people controlling the state) into account.
This explains the behaviour of US, pak, India, Iran, Libya, or any other state. None of these states looks after their national interests.
You say that US acts according to its national interests. But, for that, first you have to define the national interests of US. I would presume that weakening the entities that fund terrorists would be part of the US national interests. Then, if the rulers of US cared about its national interests, then it wouldn't be funding pakis who fund terrorists who kill US soldiers. Not just US soldiers, but even the mainland security is threatened by the terrorists, is it not? Then, why are rulers of US comfortable with funding them indirectly? I don't expect, US to serve Indian interests, but US is not even pursuing US interests.
Similarly, do rulers of India care about Indian interests? Then, why aman ki tamasha even when the 26/11 case has not moved an inch in pak?
Do rulers of pak care about paki interests? Then, why are they not going after the terrorists that are ravaging their nation?
But, in all of the above cases, the nations are perfectly protecting the interests of those who rule them.
Link
So, people(and consequently organizations) don't make logical or rational choices due to:
a) lack of correct knowledge or ignorance i.e. avidya.
or
b) they make wrong choices even when they have correct knowledge due Kama(desire), Krodha(anger), Lobha(Greed), Moha(Delusion/Confusion), Madha(Vanity), Mathsarya(envy).
----
There seems to be some discussion on 'Natural State' and 'Universal values'. It is seen that no value is followed universally, so strictly speaking there is no such a thing as universal. The only entity that seems to be universal is something which must be common to all.
Since it is common to all, it cannot have any special human qualifications. Such a thing has been called as Aathma or Brahman in Bhaarath. But, this Aatham which is universal has been described by Shri Krushna in the following manner: It cannot be burnt by fire, it cannot be touched by wind, it cannot be wet by water, it cannot be cut by sword. It cannot be killed. It does not dies not is it born.
This is the entity that is supposed to be common to all living things. Sometimes, even the non-living things are thought to possess an Athma. Sometime, theory is proposed that only One Athma exists.
The highest Vaidhik Truth is that Athma is same as Brahman: Aham Brahma Asmi.
In Aadhi Shankaracharya's Shivoham hymn, he rejects all the attributes which are not him.
This is exactly what Bji had described:
you need to ignore their individualities, their uniquenesses and construct a non-real abstract entity which is formed after trimming off those bits of these two individuals that dont agree and hence describes no one.
So, Aathma or Brahman is such an entity which is common to all. It is said to be all pervasive and hence is called Vishnu. It is said to be beneficial to all and so is called Shiva.
This seems to be the common thing.
At a lower level, the following are commonly seen among people.
Avidhya(Ignorance)
and
Kama(desire), Krodha(anger), Lobha(Greed), Moha(Delusion/Confusion), Madha(Vanity), Mathsarya(envy)
Other factors that seems to influence the thinking and action of people is:
a) habits: Once a person is habituated to a particular thinking or activity, he is likely to keep repeating it until he gets rid of that habit or acquires another new habit to replace the old habit.
b) actions or thinking of people more successful than them: people emulate those who are seen as more successful than them.
c) majoritarianism: people follow what is seen as the views of majority of the people.
The modern propaganda tools seem to work at (b) and (c). Through media, they tell people that most of the people are thinking X/Y and you must also think the same. Through educational institutions or high powered committees, they tell people that 'experts' think X/Y, so you must agree with them. Once the people are habituated to their line of thinking, then the inertia of habit will sustain it with little or no effort.
Coming to the natural state of things:
I don't know what is the meaning of 'natural', but I would use the word 'harmonious'. Those attitudes and actions which are harmonious are to be encouraged. What is harmonious?
Giving happiness to most of the people most of the time.
So, harmonious can be called as 'Dharma'.
Para-upkaraya punyaya papaya para-peedanam
Helping others is Dharma and harming others is Adharma.
Of course, it requires people to rise above Kama, Krodha, Lobha, Moha, Madha, and Mathsarya. It requires people to give up bad habits. It requires most people to follow proper Dharma. It requires the elites to follow Dharma.
Broadly, the general Dharma for all is:
n Hinduism, there are 2 types of Dharma:
a) Samanya Dharma (General)
b) Vishesha Dharma (Special) (Contextual)
Samanya Dharma(General):
It seems, according to Manu:
ahimsa satyam asteyam shaucham indriyanigraham
etam samasikam dharmam chaaturvarnye abhravin manuh
Ahimsa(Non-violence), Satyam(Truth), Asteyam(Non-Stealing), Shaucham(Cleanliness) and Indriya-nigraham(Control of senses) are the Dharma of all the 4 varnas.
The general Dharma applicable to all are:
Ahimsa(Non-violence),
Satyam(Truth),
Asteyam(Non-Stealing),
Shaucham(Cleanliness) and
Indriya-nigraham(Control of senses)
The priority is also clear. Ahimsa(Non-Violence) has the highest priority(over and above Satya/Truth also).
Ahimsa Paramo Dharmah.
Ahimsa is the highest Dharma.
So, when there is a conflict between Ahimsa(Non-Violence) and Satya(Truth), then Ahimsa get higher priority.
These 5 are the general rules for all.
Then, there are special rules. The special rules are based on the time, place, circumstance and subject. It varies from person to person, from gender to gender, from place to place and time to time.
The Special rules have higher priority than the General rules. So, a soldier, whose special duty is to kill, is exempted from the general rule of Ahimsa.
Killing oneself(suicide) is considered highest himsa(violence). Suicide is a bigger offense than the Murder. The punishments given for the same crime are not equal. The one with higher privileges gets higher punishment for the same crime.
So, Hindhuism is neither strictly contextual nor totally ignorant of context. The problem that other systems generally suffer is when they are either totally contextual or totally devoid of context. Hindhuism has more elegant solution to this by dividing the Dharma into two parts one that is based on context and one that is absolute.
So, there are two sets of values: universal harmonious values and contextual harmonious values.
Universal harmonious values which should be followed by everyone are:
Ahimsa(Non-violence),
Satyam(Truth),
Asteyam(Non-Stealing),
Shaucham(Cleanliness) and
Indriya-nigraham(Control of senses)
The contextual harmonious values are defined based on time, place, circumstance and object. However, one most important point is that in Hindhu system, Contextual harmonious values i.e. Vishesha Dharma gets higher priority than the Samanaya Dharma(Universal harmonious values).
If we are to equate the Universal harmonious values(Samanaya Dharma) with human rights and the Vishesha Dharma(contextual harmonious values) are equated to national laws, then
according to the Hindhu system national/local laws have higher priority than human rights. Because the national/local laws are framed based on the unique situation of that particular national/locality.
Of course, it understood in Hindhuism that in the long run, all national laws/local laws must be in accordance with the universal harmonious values(Samanya Dharma).
Ahimsa(Non-violence),
Satyam(Truth),
Asteyam(Non-Stealing),
Shaucham(Cleanliness) and
Indriya-nigraham(Control of senses)
----
Bji,
glad to see you post again. I was missing your posts.

(RajeshA saar also seems to be missing from action from some days

).
There seems to be something interesting:
Sometime ago, we had discussed about Malsi being influenced by Moses creed.
In the following picture: Western Universalism will be the combination of Atheism, Materialism and Hedonism.
johneeG wrote:My theory(still in evolving process, yet to crystallize):
Evolution/devolution of ideas/philosophies:
PS: I'll write about it later...
brihaspati wrote:there can be a branch from Moses 2.0 to Islam.
brihaspati wrote:We should keep johneeG's hypotheses as open. Influence diagrams cannot be formed right now - with not enough material to either reject or accept. There are tantalizing clues towards common origins.
The written records stuff is not so straightforward. If they were written on perishable stuff long before say the 2500 BCE mark, they will simply not survive. Catastrophic destruction of population centres would also have contributed.
My hypo about MB was that it was a three layered story, with some elements coming from the 5700-6000 BCE era [offshore port cities sinking into the sea - this was the period of last rapid sea-level rise - sinec then - up to 3000 BCE, water levels actually fell by about 3 m]. I read about the tentative dating of structures in the gulf of Cambay indicates a similar period much later than my original hypo. But no persihable reocrds survive anywhere from that period.
Question is why did nt they use terracotta or rock carvings like in ME or Egypt. Maybe they did - when parts of them moved off after the disaster - when they colonized ME and Egypt. I mentioned about the early landmarks-words in Egypt - k-r-m-t, "black earth" - very very close to -kr-sna-m(ri)t(tika), or "d-r-s" or with added "-t" for upper Egypt [south] meaning "red/dry earth" with tantalizing - "d-hu-sar".
Compare the verses extolling the "sun-disk" in the Aten glyphs of Amarna, the Hebrew Bible extolling of Yahweh [Yha] and the Vedic "sun" extolling.
johneeG wrote:Carl wrote:How is Vedic religion related to Egyptian 1.0 and Hebrew 1.0 religions? TIA.
The blue lines indicate possible influences. So, its a conjecture.
Everyone agrees that Vedic religion is the oldest religion. And that India was one of the grandest centres of human civilization. India was also always rich and powerful having huge influence. We know that Judaism 1.0(Hebrew 1.0) and Egyptian 1.0 were pagan and polytheistic. Generally, people assume that Judaism was always monotheistic, but thats not true. There seems to have been a lot of struggle, violent purging and murders to steer Judaism in the direction of monotheism. So, Judaism 1.0 is being considered as pagan and polytheistic, while Judaism 2.0 is being seen as an evolving monotheism.
Now, the presumptions being made in the conjecture(that Hinduism has possible influences on Judaism 1.0, Egyptian 1.0, Arabian Paganism and Greek ) are:
a) There was contact among Judaism 1.0, Egyptian 1.0 and India through trade or other means.
b) This contact must have lead to interactions and export/import of art, culture, religion and philosophy.
c) Since India was renowned cultural(religious and philosophical) centre, the influence of India on other cultures woulds have been considerably greater than their influence on India. And there is a thumb rule that the rich and powerful country's culture is also accepted by other countries. And there is no doubt that India was one of the most powerful and rich countries(if not the richest and strongest).
d) India's influence would be particularly great on pagan and polytheistic cultures.
Some of my doubts are:
a) What is the exact nature of relation among Judaism 1.0, Egyptian 1.0, Arabian Paganism and Greek?
b) Was Greek always Hellenistic? or was there preceding version?
c) Buddhism seems to be a big enigma. It seems that Buddha's date was shifted to suit the western bias of Indologists. It seems that Buddha was a much older figure. We also know that Buddhism was always missionary. So, what exactly is the role of Buddhism within and without India?
Bji,
Regarding Islam and Judaism 2.0, what kind of influence do you suggest?
a) Primary Influence or main influence?
b) secondary influence? or
c) possible influence?
brihaspati wrote:^^^main influence, with the iconoclastic branch of Byzantine [and not the iconodule branch] christianity as secondary.
Judaism, Egyptian both could have been mediated by Canaanite and in roots - Mesopotamian/Sumerian - in turn probably driven by emigre pushed out by floods from the west coast of India.
The pre-Mosaic phase was the Sumerian-Canaanite Baal worship. The post mosaic phase is the Akhenaten solar cult from Egypt interacting with Judaic to create the Mosaic. The 18th dynasty foundation was by a possibly remarkable woman, and we know not much about the transition. Interestingly - the founding mother - is described through a myth that is very similar to Indian traditions.
Carl wrote:Subhash Kak writes:
Rigvedic roots of Semitic gods?
The different Semitic gods have cognates in the Vedic pantheon. Yam may be connected to the Vedic Yama who in RV 10.10.4 is seen as being born from the waters, and Mot to the Vedic Mrityu, death. But more to the point, Ila represents Agni as in Yajurveda (VS) 2.3, whereas Ilaa represents Earth, speech, and flow. There is also the Vedic Yahvah. As an epithet it is associated with movement, activity, heaven and earth; it means the sacrificer and Agni, the chief terrestrial god. It is associated with energy like the Yahwah of the Semites. The name Yahvah occurs 21 times in the Rigveda . It may be compared to Shivah, an epithet for auspiciousness in the Rigveda, that later is applied regularly to Rudra.
Are Ila and Yahvah like El and Yahweh just by coincidence? We don't know, but we certainly do know of the Vedic-god worshiping Mitanni of North Syria who could have served as the intermediaries in connecting the Indians and the Semites.
An example:
पर वो यह्वं पुरूणां विशां देवयतीनाम ।
अग्निं सूक्तेभिर्वचोभिरीमहे यं सीमिदन्य ईळते ॥ [RigVeda 1.36.1]
RigVedic meaning of Yahvah (a Name of Agni):
1 yahva mf(%{I4})n. restless , swift , active (applied to Agni , Indra and Soma) RV. ; continually moving or flowing (applied to the waters) ib. (= %{mahat} Sa1y.) ; m. = %{yajamAna} , a sacrificer Un2. i , 134 Sch. ; (%{I}) f. du. heaven and earth RV. ; pl. the flowing waters (with %{sapta} , `" the seven great rivers "') ib. (cf. Naigh. i , 15).
2 yahvat mf(%{a4tI})n. ever-flowing (waters) RV.
Predictably, EJ sources want to debunk any linkage of Semitic god to Vedic tradition. One website called "Karma to Grace"
has this to say - link
Yahweh is the unique name given to the God who revealed Himself in the Old Testament.
[...]
Is Yahvah the same as Yahweh? Well, let us ask the question more correctly, “Is hwhy the same as यह्व?” Can you read these two? Do you know what they say? Is there a linguistic tie between the two? Is the “H” of Hebrew represented here (there are two “H” sounds in Hebrew) the same as the “h” in Sanskrit? Are the vowels the same? The vowels aren’t even written in Hebrew, so we can’t easily know if they are the same as the Sanskrit ones. The “v” of Jahvah and the “w” of Yahweh —are we sure they are the same? In English they are quite different—one is a fluid and one is a fricative, and they represent completely unique sounds in English. “Wow” and “Vow” are completely different words and though they could be connected phonetically, we still do not identify them as the same words. Do they represent different sounds in Hebrew and Sanskrit? ..... {on and on in this vein}
About the topic of Malsi and Moses creed:
Is it possible that both of them developed together around 800 CE? They may be similar because they developed together?
And kudos to you Bji for your amazing hypothesis that Buddhism might have been into iconoclasm. If its true, then it explains the missing history of south. The history of south is missing and starts very late. Thelugu history starts so late. The earliest records of Thelugu history are supposed to be from 600 CE which is very very late. This was the time when the Buddhism was on its deathbed.
Most of the chapters in south history seem to be missing. This is the reason that the Sangam literature seems unique. What is the reason for this lack of historical records in this time? It seems to me that your hypothesis explains this perfectly. Buddhism was active in this region at that time and the records are missing from that time. So, Buddhism must have been involved in some way. If Buddhism itself was iconoclastic then it explains the lack of historical records in many areas.