It is not tangential. There is a again a tendency to fix a particular event or time point in the immediate past and claim that all else follows sequentially from that event - such as the so-called Babri-mosque demolition or Gujarat violence - and nothing previous to that mother-of-all events is relevant. Or the Afghan anti-Soviet [which actually started off before Soviets actually landed up with their army - and against modernization attempts by western educated portions of the Afghan army and urban Leftists] insurgency.PrasadZ wrote
"Nobody should ever miss or deny an Islamic link to terror if it should ever occur again because people who hold moderate, civilized, wise, secular and enlightened opinions such as you do would be less likely to call Islamic terror as Islamic terror. That fear is higher on this forum than the Islam provoked violence. "
Shivji, I wish the fear were unfounded. FWIW, many WKK sympathisers like me re-evaluated the situation after suffering 26/11.
IMO, the discussion of historical wrongs is tangential to understanding the modern situation. Of course, its understandable why the discussion delves into centuries ago history and many times, I find them instructive (isnt that why I lurk). My apologies if you (or Airavat) think I derail it
The fundamental blunder that is ignored in this logic is that if such a train of events always has to have a starting event, why should that starting mother-of-all events be not descended from other previous events? If all recent events are traceable in a direct linkage to a single event in the immediate past - why cannot that event itself be linked in a chain of inevitability with other events in its "immediate past"? And hence back to "ancient" incidents as you represent? if every atrocity committed by Muslim groups is a reaction to some atrocity on them by some non-Muslim group in the past - why should not the non-Muslim group also get the benefit of a similar logic that any atrocity they have committed on the Muslim also stemmed from a reaction to previous Muslim atrocities on them?
To really deny the role of ideology and past forms of that ideology with current interpretations you have to deny this very "historicity" argument being used to explain as to why current Muslim groups carry out atrocities. That is a mighty self-contradiction in logic - but I am not sure pro-recent-event-explanators will be up to recognizing such logical self-contradictions.
To remove religion from the equation you have to delegitimize it and deny its claim to come in between the citizen and the rashtra - something that has been done only on the "Hindu", and is a continuous Indian rashtryia project to unilaterally redefine it so that it can never ever influence political action. Tell me why has not that been done on Islam or any of the other religions raging in their freedom of action and political claims? More importantly because these religions claim exclusive right to religiously motivated political action as an integrated and core part of their belief - so that by trying to take away that right you are apparently attacking the faith?"Mr PrasadZ, what do you know about the Kashmiri terrorism. The first thing these people did was ethnic cleansing of hindus. If ethnic cleansing of hindus is not religious bigotry then I am not sure what is religious bigotry."
Of course, it is religious bigotry. The answer, IMO, is to remove religion from the equation, not by introducing another.
It is a complete and total ignorance of a comprehensive study of the history of Islam not only in India but wherever it has tried to or successfully penetrated right from its inception - that turns up in the fatuous declarations that there is a supposed clean break and rupture between "original" Islam and its supposed modern "reinterpretations". Because people do not comprehensively and comparatively study history not only in time but also over regions and communities such errors creep up. Nowhere it is more evident than here in our discussions when we discuss current situation in J&K and try to wash away the historical and religious continuity of the phenomenon and the primary reason why we never ever solve the Islamic insurgency problem anywhere over the subcontinent.
why should "pluralism" be affected by what happens in Kashmir? After all isn't it the dogma that "Indian pluralism" is somehow an inherent feature of India [now which India or which group of Indians - that always seems to be the sole responsibility of the oh-so-philosophical-tolerant-of-everything-including-genocide-on-Hindus-only Hindu] and it was so as a kind of timeless Indian "value" which the absolute majority of Indian non-Muslims take as the one and only supreme value of their life? Or is it the fear that seeing what Kashmiri dancing is really about - that about establishing a faith over all others - exposes the mythical dogmatic claims about peaceful-Sufi-Islamic conversion of India - and that is the real danger? After all if Kashmiri Muslims can act this way - then it shows that the so-called show-case place of Sufism in India, and the supposed true face of the faith - with all its mythical claims of tolerance and peace - is not and never was an inherent value - the way Indian pluralism is claimed to be! If it was inherent then peace and tolerance would have lasted through all provocations of supposed repression just as Indian pluralism seems to have lasted through Islamist atrocities!"Kashmir valley goes its own way then with it India's pluralism will also go and a soul of India."
To be honest, I see Kashmir as geo strategically important but a pain in the butt. Of course, as an ordinary civilian, I have no idea whether thats the popular perception. take it as you will. For myself, I havent seen a convincing case for Kashmir as essential to India's pluralism and I am always surprised so much is made of their rantings
Isn't it time to question your own logic - at least in the context of Kashmir?